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AIEED GAT Online Mock Test

AIEED 2016 – All India Entrance Examination For Design Test 2016 Questions Answers for fashion designing entrance exams subjects : Quantitative Ability, Communication Ability and English Comprehension, Analytical and Logical Ability). This mock test having 147 questions in each subjects, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this General Aptitude Test for under graduate AIEED entrance question details at the end of the quiz.

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AIEED 2016  –All India Entrance Examination For Design Test 2016 General Aptitude Test 2016  questions answers are applicable for any kind of fashion designing entrance You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers AIEED GAT critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking all level exam. For more resources you can go through AIEED Previous Year Question Papers Answers.



AIEED GAT Online Mock Test

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Question 1
                                                                          PASSAGE I Perfect organization, Faultless team-work, indomitable courage, super human endurance, even the latest equipment all these are unavailable unless the weather is kind. In the mountains it is the weather that rules everything. It may be fair in the early morning when the climb begins, but unexpectedly blizzzards may halt the climbers with inadequate protection on an exposed slope. The villains of the piece are cold, wind and snow and in the Himalayas, these conspire together for the whole year, except for two short periods. In early May and in October, there may be short intervals between the tremendous gales of winter and the treacherous shows of the monsoon. Only in these intervals is there any chance of finding the right weather conditions for an assault upon a peak. Cold can at least be kept at bay by warm clothing and weather there is no defence.Question The two greatest enemies of the Himalayan Climber are:  
A
attitude and scarcity of oxygen
B
wind and snow
C
ice fields and rocks
D
slopes and valleys
Question 2
It is better to attempt scaling a peak:  
A
in the summer months
B
between storms and gales
C
early in May or in October
D
when the monsoon are over
Question 3
The perils of intense cold may be counteracted by:  
A
a special kind of food and clothing
B
the use of alcohol
C
climbing only during the morning hours
D
the use of drugs and medicines
Question 4
When climbing in the Himalayas one must always remember that the weather is:  
A
severe
B
conquerable
C
the supreme arbiter
D
fickle
Question 5
According to the author, what the mountaineer today needs most is:  
A
regular exercise
B
adequate medical aid
C
financial support
D
modern equipment
Question 6
                                                                  PASSAGE IIThe Rajputs occupy an honoured place in the history of India. They were a war-like people, proud and patriotic. They were jealous of their honour, and would lay down their lives to uphold it. They loved their homes and fought bravely to defend the honour of their women-folk. Nothing would tame their spirits. Perils only called forth their courage and poverty only increased their power of resistance. None could fight like them. Their motto was ‘Better death than dishonour’.Question Which of the following represents the central theme of the passage?  
A
The pride of the Rajputs
B
Rajputs and their sacrifices
C
The rise and fall of the Rajputs
D
Rajputs – the spirited heroes of Indian history
Question 7
Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word ‘proud’ in the passage?  
A
Humble
B
Kind
C
Courteous
D
Cowardly
Question 8
The expression ‘tame their spirits’ in the passage means:  
A
suppress their ambitions.
B
arouse their enthusiasm.
C
develop their courage.
D
curb their enthusiasm.
Question 9
Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?  
A
The Rajputs achieved eminence in history due to their great bravery.
B
They were homely people and would fight for upholding women’s honour.
C
In moments of danger they would exhibit great courage.
D
They could not, however, face the challenge of poverty.
Question 10
According to the writer, the Rajputs occupy an honoured place in history, because:  
A
they were fond of wars.
B
they were proud of their wars.
C
they were jealous of people’s honour.
D
they lived and died upholding their self-respect.
Question 11
                                                                      PASSAGE IIIReligion is the greatest instrument for so raising us. It is amazing that a person not intellectually bright, perhaps not even educated, is capable of grasping and living by something so advanced as the principles of Christianity. Yet, there is a common phenomenon. It is not, however, in my province to talk about religion. But rather to stress the power which great literature and the great personalities whom we meet in it and in history have, to open and enlarge our minds, and to show us what is first rate in human personality and human character by showing us goodness and greatness.Question In the passage, the author’s ultimate intention is to talk about:  
A
religion
B
history
C
education
D
character
Question 12
The phrase ‘so raising us’ means:  
A
giving us a sense of spiritual superiority.
B
making us feel that we are more important than we really are.
C
improving our mental abilities.
D
making us realise that we all are children of God.
Question 13
What surprises the author is that:  
A
even uneducated people are attracted towards Christianity.
B
Christianity is practised by a large number of people.
C
despite being difficult and complex, the principles of Chirstianity are practised by so many people.
D
even very intelligent people cannot understand the principles of Christianity.
Question 14
The author hesitates to talk about religion because:  
A
he does not feel himself competent to talk about it.
B
nobody around him likes to talk about it.
C
he does not believe in any religion.
D
he does not fully understand its importance.
Question 15
According to the author, we come across examples of greatness and nobility in:  
A
great works of literature.
B
literary and historical works.
C
historical records.
D
books on Christianity.
Question 16
                                                                      PASSAGE IV It is generally acknowledged that children learn a lot from their parents. It is not so commonly admitted that parents. learn a great deal from their children. As adults, it is easy to assume that we are always right, but the laugh was on me one beautiful day. My daughter Kashmira knew how much I loved flowers. One day when she was of nine years, she picked some branches from our neighbour’s blossoming fruit tree. Realising she intended to please me, I didn’t scold her, but chose a different approach. “These are lovely, dear, but do you realise that if you had left them on the tree, each of these blossoms would have become a cherry?” “No, they wouldn’t have,” she said firmly. “Oh, yes they would have. Each of these blossoms would have grown into a cherry.” “Well okay, mother, if you insist,” she finally conceded, “but they were plums last year.”Question What is not commonly acknowledged is that:  
A
children learn a lot from their parents.
B
parents teach their children a great deal.
C
parents learn a great deal from their children.
D
children learn a great deal inspite of their parents.
Question 17
“The laugh was on me” means that:  
A
the mother was caught in the wrong.
B
the daughter was wrong.
C
people laughed at the mother.
D
the mother laughed at herself.
Question 18
What the daughter picked from the neighbour’s garden were?  
A
Some branches.
B
Some flowers.
C
Some branches with blossoms.
D
Some branches with fruit.
Question 19
The mother did not scold the daughter because:  
A
she loved flowers.
B
she liked cherry blossoms.
C
she did not understand why her daughter had done so.
D
she decided to indirectly make her daughter realise her mistake.
Question 20
The mother was caught in the wrong because the daughter:  
A
proved that she had not picked the branch with the blossom.
B
reminded her that she loved flowers.
C
reminded her that the branch with blossoms was from a plum tree.
D
proved that those blossoms would not yield any fruit.
Question 21
                                                                     PASSAGE VRecent advances in science and technology have made it possible for geneticists to find out abnormalities in the unborn foetus and take remedial action to rectify some defects which would otherwise prove to be fatal to the child. Though genetic engineering is still at its infancy, scientists can now predict a genetic disorder with greater accuracy. It is not yet an exact science since they are not in a position to predict when exactly a genetic disorder will set in. While they have not, yet, been able to change the genetic order of the gene in germs, they are optimistic and are holding out that in the near future they might be successful in achieving this feat. They have, however, acquired the ability in manipulating tissue cells. However, genetic mis-information can sometimes be damaging for it may adversely affect people psychologically. Genetic information may lead to a tendency to brand some people as inferior. Genetic information can therefore be abused and its application in deciding the sex of the foetus and its subsequent abortion is now hotly debated on ethical lines. But on this issue geneticists cannot be squarely blamed though this charge has often been levelled at them. It is mainly a societal problem. At present genetic engineering is a costly process of detecting disorders but scientists hope to reduce the costs when technology becomes more advanced. This is why much progress in this area has been possible in scientifically advanced and rich countries like the U.S.A., U.K. and Japan. It remains to be seen if in the future this science will lead to the development of a race of supermen or will be able to obliterate disease from this would.Question Which of the following is the same in meaning as the phrase ‘holding out’ as used in the passage?  
A
Catching
B
Expounding
C
Sustaining
D
Restraining
Question 22
According to the passage, the question of abortion is:  
A
ignored
B
hotly debated
C
unanswered
D
left to the scientists to decide
Question 23
Which of the following is true regarding the reasons for progress in genetic engineering?  
A
It has become popular to abort female foetuses.
B
Human beings are extremely interested in heredity.
C
Economically sound and scientifically advanced countries can provide the infrastructure for such research.
D
Poor countries desperately need genetic information.
Question 24
Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘obliterate’ as used in the passage?  
A
Wipe off
B
Eradicate
C
Give birth to
D
Wipe out
Question 25
Which of the following is the opposite in meaning to the word “charged” as used in the passage?  
A
Calm
B
Disturbed
C
Discharged
D
Settled
Question 26
Which of the following is not true of the genetic engineering movement?  
A
Possibility of abuse.
B
It is confronted by ethical problems.
C
Increased tendency to manipulate gene cells.
D
Acquired ability to detect genetic disorders in unborn babies.
Question 27
Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘feat’ as used in the passage?  
A
process
B
focus
C
possibility
D
goal
Question 28
Why according to the author, is genetic misinformation severely damaging? I. The cost involved is very high. II. Some people are unjustly branded as inferior.  
A
I only
B
II only
C
Both I and II
D
Neither I nor II
Question 29
In the passage, ‘abused’ means:  
A
insulted
B
talked about
C
killed
D
misused
Question 30
At present genetic engineering can rectify all genetic disorders. Is that so?  
A
Yes
B
No
C
It can do so only in some cases
D
None of these
Question 31
Directions (Qs. 31-33): In each of the following questions, a number/letter series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 25, ?  
A
26
B
27
C
29
D
37
Question 32
22, 24, 28, ?, 52, 84  
A
36
B
38
C
42
D
46
Question 33
AB, DEF, HIJK, ?, STUVWX  
A
LMNO
B
LMNOP
C
MNOPQ
D
QRSTU
Question 34
Directions (Qs. 34-37): Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.      A. Zebra             B. Lion       C. Tiger               D. Horse  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 35
  A. Apple               B. Marigold   C. Rose                  D. Lily   
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 36
A. Football             B. Volleyball C. Cricket                D. Chess  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 37
A. House                 B. Cottage C. School                 D. Palace  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 38
Directions (Qs. 38-39): Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?       A. Nose            B. Eyes       C. Tongue        D. Teeth  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 39
       A. 13            B. 29       C. 37             D. 69  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 40
If FISH is written as EHRG in a certain code, how would JUNGLE be written in that code?  
A
ITMFKD
B
ITNFKD
C
KVOHMF
D
TIMFKD
Question 41
In a code language, A is written as B, B is written as C, C is written as D and so on. Then how will SMART be written in that code language?  
A
TLBSU
B
SHBSU
C
TNBSU
D
SNBRU
Question 42
Deepak starts walking straight towards east. After walking 75 metres, he turns to the left and walks 25 metres straight. Again he turns to the left, walks a distance of 40 metres straight, again he turns to the left and walks a distance of 25 metres. How far is he from the starting point?  
A
25 metres
B
50 metres
C
140 metres
D
None of these
Question 43
Amit walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 40 metres. Then he took a left turn and walked 30 metres. In which direction is he now from the starting point?  
A
North-east
B
East
C
South-east
D
South
Question 44
Rohan walks a distance of 3 km towards North, then turns to his left and walks for 2 km. He again turns left and walks for 3 km. At this point he turns to his left and walks for 3 km. How many kilometres is he from the starting point?  
A
1 km
B
2 km
C
3 km
D
5 km
Question 45
Manick walked 40 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a left turn and walked 40 metres. How far and in which direction is he from the starting point?  
A
20 metres East
B
20 metres North
C
100 metres South
D
None of these
Question 46
Raj is walking towards West. He takes three turns while walking, all at an angle of 450 towards right, right and left. What direction is he facing now?  
A
North-East
B
South-East
C
East
D
West
Question 47
If the letters in the word UNDERTAKING are rearranged in the alphabetical order, which one will be in the middle in order after the rearrangement?  
A
G
B
I
C
K
D
None of these
Question 48
Which letter in the word CYBERNETICS occupies the same position as it does in the English alphabet?  
A
C
B
E
C
I
D
T
Question 49
Directions (Qs. 49-50): In each of the following questions, find out which of the letter-series follows the given rule. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is two.  
A
MPSVYBE
B
QSVYZCF
C
SVZCGJN
D
ZCGKMPR
Question 50
The group of letters should not contain more than two vowels.  
A
BDEJOLY
B
JKAPIXU
C
PRAQEOS
D
ZILERAM
Question 51
If the letters of the word ADISHANKARA-CHARAYA were written in the reverse order, which will be the third letter to the right of the seventh letter from the left?  
A
R
B
A
C
K
D
N
Question 52
The positions of how many digits in the number 321465987 will remain same when the digits are arranged in ascending order?  
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
Question 53
If the day before yesterday was Saturday, what day will fall on the day after tomorrow?  
A
Friday
B
Thursday
C
Wednesday
D
Tuesday
Question 54
If 30th January 2003 was Thursday, what was the day on 2nd March, 2003?  
A
Tuesday
B
Thursday
C
Saturday
D
Sunday
Question 55
A number is greater than 3 but less than 8. Also, it is greater than 6 but less than 10. The number is:  
A
5
B
6
C
7
D
8
Question 56
How many days will there be from 26th January, 2004 to 15th May, 2004 (both days included)?  
A
110
B
111
C
112
D
None of these
Question 57
Which two months in a year have the same calendar?  
A
June, October
B
April, November
C
October, December
D
None of these
Question 58
Directions (Qs. 58-59): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions to decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Mark Answer as A. if only Assumption I is implicit. B. if only Assumption II is implicit. C. if either Assumption I or II is implicit. D. if neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.Question Statement: “Please note that the company will provide accommodation to only outside candidates if selected” – a condition in an advertisement. Assumptions: I. The local candidates would be having some or the other arrangement for their stay. II. The company plans to select only local candidates.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 59
Statement: You can win over new people by your warm smile. Assumptions: I. It is necessary to win new people. II. It is possible for us to smile warmly at unknown people.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 60
A is the son of B. C, B’s sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?  
A
Sister
B
Daughter
C
Niece
D
Wife
Question 61
Water has maximum density at:  
A
– 1 degree C
B
0 degree C
C
4 degree C
D
100 degree C
Question 62
Bamboo is a:  
A
Grass
B
Herb
C
Shrub
D
Tree
Question 63
The best method for improving the nutrient composition of a diet is by:  
A
combining various foods.
B
use of sprouted cereals and pulses.
C
use of boiled foods.
D
use of processed foods.
Question 64
‘Greenhouse effect’ means:  
A
pollution in houses in tropical region.
B
trapping of solar energy due to atmospheric carbon dioxide.
C
prevention from ultraviolet radiations by the ozone layer.
D
None of these
Question 65
Which of the following have not undergone much of a change during the process of evolution over millions of years? I. Crocodile II. Cockroach III. Horse  
A
I and II
B
II and III
C
I and III
D
All of these
Question 66
When an object is placed between two mirrors placed parallel to each other, how many images will be formed?  
A
2
B
4
C
6
D
Infinite
Question 67
If a boy sitting in a train, moving at constant velocity, throws a ball straight up into the air:  
A
the ball will fall in front of him.
B
the ball will fall behind him.
C
the ball will fall into his hand.
D
the ball will not return downwards.
Question 68
Clothes keep us warm in winter because they:  
A
supply heat.
B
do not radiate heat.
C
prevent air from entering.
D
prevent the heat of the body from escaping.
Question 69
When a person enters a dark room from bright light, he cannot see anything clearly for some time. Slowly, he starts seeing things. This is because the:  
A
length of lens increases.
B
iris expands.
C
iris contracts.
D
distance between the lens and retina increases.
Question 70
McMahon Line demarcates the boundary between:  
A
India and Pakistan
B
India and China
C
India and Nepal
D
India and Bangladesh
Question 71
Zojila Pass connects:  
A
Kashmir and Tibet
B
Nepal and Tibet
C
Leh and Kargil
D
Leh and Srinagar
Question 72
First railway line in India was laid in:  
A
1835
B
1853
C
1917
D
1923
Question 73
Arjuna Award is given for:  
A
bravery on battlefield.
B
outstanding performance in sports.
C
exceptional service in emergency.
D
exceptional service to slum dwellers.
Question 74
Who wrote the line: ‘A thing of beauty is a joy for ever’?  
A
P.B. Shelley
B
William Wordsworth
C
John Keats
D
Robert Browning
Question 75
Khyber Pass is in:  
A
India
B
Nepal
C
Pakistan
D
Bangladesh
Question 76
The Indian National Calendar is based on:  
A
Christian era
B
Saka era
C
Vikram era
D
Hijri era
Question 77
Which of the following countries has only a two party government?  
A
Australia
B
France
C
U.S.A.
D
Great Britain
Question 78
Who is the Union Minister for Textiles, Government of India?  
A
Sharad Pawar
B
S. Vaghela
C
Arjun Singh
D
None of these
Question 79
The President of Sri Lanka is:  
A
Sirimavo Bandaranaike
B
Arjuna Ranatunga
C
Mahinda Rajapakse
D
None of these
Question 80
Who is the first Indian sportsperson to win an individual Gold Medal in the Olympic Games?  
A
Leander Paes
B
Vijender Kumar
C
Abhinav Bindra
D
Vikram Rathore
Question 81
Which of the following countries is the largest producer of Jute in the world?  
A
Bangladesh
B
India
C
Myanmar
D
Sri Lanka
Question 82
Which country has the largest rail network in the world?  
A
India
B
U.K.
C
China
D
U.S.A
Question 83
Which is India’s national airline?  
A
Indian Airlines
B
Indigo
C
Air India
D
None of these
Question 84
The headquarters of U.N.O. is located in:  
A
Washington D.C.
B
Hague
C
New Delhi
D
New York
Question 85
Saina Nehwal is India’s No. 1 player in which sport?  
A
Badminton
B
Squash
C
Golf
D
Swimming
Question 86
The “PAN” in PAN Card issued by the Income Tax department stands for:  
A
Permanent Account Number
B
Permanent Audit Number
C
Permitted Account Number
D
None of these
Question 87
Who is the founder of Microsoft Corporation?  
A
Ross Perot
B
Narayana Moorthy
C
Bill Gates
D
Azim Premji
Question 88
The classical dance form Kathakali originated in which Indian State?  
A
Orissa
B
Tamil Nadu
C
West Bengal
D
Kerala
Question 89
What is the legally marriageable age for women in India?  
A
18 years
B
19 years
C
20 years
D
21 years
Question 90
The birthday of late Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, the former President of India, is celebrated as:  
A
Lawyers’ Day
B
Teachers’ Day
C
Children’s Day
D
None of these
Question 91
Directions (Qs. 91-97): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. EAGER:  
A
Clever
B
Enthusiastic
C
Curious
D
Devoted
Question 92
COMMEMORATE:  
A
Boast
B
Remember
C
Manipulate
D
Harmonise
Question 93
SECURE:  
A
Secret
B
Comfortable
C
Safe
D
Independent
Question 94
WHIM:  
A
Fancy
B
Clumsy
C
Desire
D
Strange behaviour
Question 95
CANDID:  
A
Rude
B
Impertinent
C
Blunt
D
Frank
Question 96
TENTATIVE:  
A
Unreliable
B
Current
C
Provisional
D
Final
Question 97
ENDORSEMENT:  
A
Reprimand
B
Censure
C
Commendation
D
Reproach
Question 98
Directions (Qs. 98-107): In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. AUTONOMY:  
A
Submissiveness
B
Dependence
C
Subordination
D
Slavery
Question 99
TRAGEDY:  
A
Humorous
B
Comedy
C
Romance
D
Calamity
Question 100
ACCORD:  
A
Solution
B
Act
C
Dissent
D
Concord
Question 101
UNIVERSAL:  
A
Narrow
B
Regional
C
Miniature
D
Subsidiary
Question 102
OBSTINATE:  
A
Inflexible
B
Prominent
C
Pliable
D
Fashionable
Question 103
SUBJUGATE:  
A
Liberate
B
Enslave
C
Enrich
D
Identify
Question 104
SUPERFICIAL:  
A
Artificial
B
Deep
C
Shallow
D
Real
Question 105
FICKLE:  
A
Diseased
B
Fast
C
Constant
D
Quick
Question 106
RELIGIOUS:  
A
Atheistic
B
Immoral
C
Secular
D
Sinful
Question 107
PANIC:  
A
Alarm
B
Indifference
C
Serenity
D
Cautiousness
Question 108
Directions (Qs. 108-111): In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. A person who does not believe in any religion:  
A
Philatelist
B
Rationalist
C
Atheist
D
Pagan
Question 109
A person who believes that pleasure is the chief good:  
A
Stoic
B
Hedonist
C
Epicure
D
Sensual
Question 110
One who loves mankind:  
A
Anthropologist
B
Philanthropist
C
Seismologist
D
Optometrist
Question 111
To break off proceedings of a meeting for a time:  
A
Convene
B
Terminate
C
Adjourn
D
Procrastinate
Question 112
Directions (Qs. 112-116): In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb. To turn over a new leaf:  
A
To change completely one’s course of action
B
To shift attention to new problems after having studied the old ones thoroughly
C
To cover up one’s faults by wearing new marks
D
To change the old habits and adopt new ones
Question 113
Hobsons’ choice:  
A
Feeling of insecurity
B
Accept or leave the offer
C
Feeling of strength
D
Excellent choice
Question 114
To get into hot waters:  
A
To be impatient
B
To suffer a huge financial loss
C
To get into trouble
D
To be in a confused state of mind
Question 115
Dog in the manger:  
A
An undersized bull almost the shape of a dog
B
A dog that has no kennel of its own
C
A person who puts himself in difficulties on account of other people
D
A person who prevents others from enjoying something useless to himself
Question 116
A square peg in a round hole:  
A
An impossible task
B
A scheme that never works
C
A person unsuited to the position he fills
D
None of these
Question 117
Directions (Qs. 117-120): In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.       A. Comemorate         B. Commemmorate       C. Comemmorate      D. Commemorate  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 118
A. Mountaineous         B. Mountaneous C. Mountainous             D. Mountanous  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 119
A. Hindrence           B. Hindrance C. Hinderence          D. Hinderance  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 120
A. Servent           B. Servant C. Sarvant          D. Sarvent  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 121
If the outer radius of a metal pipe is 2.84 inches and the inner radius is 1.94 inches, the thickness of the metal in inches is:  
A
0.75
B
0.80
C
0.90
D
0.95
Question 122
A shopkeeper marks the price of his goods 20% higher than the original price. After that he allows a discount of 10%. What profit or loss did he get?  
A
Profit 10%
B
Profit 8%
C
Loss 5%
D
Loss 7%
Question 123
The prices a scooter and a moped are in the ratio of 9:5. If a scooter costs Rs. 4,200 more than a moped, find the price of the moped.  
A
Rs. 5,250
B
Rs. 3,350
C
Rs. 6,500
D
Rs. 5,700
Question 124
Rs. 120 is divided among A, B and C such that A’s share is Rs. 20 more than B’s and Rs. 20 less than C’s. What is B’s share?  
A
Rs. 10
B
Rs. 15
C
Rs. 20
D
Rs. 25
Question 125
12 ÷ 0.09 of 0.3 × 2 = ?  
A
0.80
B
8.0
C
80
D
None of these
Question 126
7.32 × 4.12 = ?  
A
33.1564
B
30.1584
C
30.3334
D
39.1584
Question 127
172.23 – ? = 63.83 + 22  
A
130.4
B
86.40
C
108.18
D
85.83
Question 128
80.40 ÷ 20 – (–4.2) = ?  
A
497.8
B
5.786
C
947.0
D
8.22
Question 129
542 – 369 + 171 – 289 = ?  
A
135
B
55
C
255
D
245
Question 130
5329 + 4328 – 369 – 7320 = ?  
A
1698
B
1998
C
1958
D
1968
Question 131
Find the value of x in the following proportion: 75:3 = x:9  
A
125
B
120
C
225
D
220
Question 132
Two numbers are in the ratio of 4:5. If the larger number is 15 more than the smaller number, find the product of the numbers.  
A
3500
B
3000
C
4500
D
4550
Question 133
16% of 650 + ?% of 850 = 172  
A
20
B
8
C
18
D
9
Question 134
135 ÷ 9 ÷ 4 = ? × 2.5  
A
1.5
B
.025
C
2
D
2.5
Question 135
82.79 – 25.87 = 72.79 – ?  
A
15.17
B
16.02
C
15.87
D
15.98
Question 136
430 + 90 × 12 = ?  
A
538
B
1510
C
5380
D
6240
Question 137
245.576 + 2116.8 + 69.44 = ?  
A
2431.816
B
2430.624
C
2431.028
D
2421.096
Question 138
51.12 ÷ 4.26 = ?  
A
22
B
1.2
C
2.2
D
12
Question 139
(152 – 122) × 4 = ?2  
A
9
B
6
C
81
D
18
Question 140
?% of 450 = 54  
A
12
B
24.3
C
18
D
6
Question 141
17.6 × 3.5 + 4.3 = ?  
A
71.79
B
65.9
C
80.87
D
137.28
Question 142
45762 – 39826 = 7976 – ?  
A
2040
B
2000
C
2400
D
2210
Question 143
(87324 – 79576) × 1.5 = ?  
A
1162.2
B
11622
C
1372.2
D
1163.7
Question 144
(331 + 19) × (15 – 11) × (37 + 13) = ?  
A
60,000
B
65,000
C
70,000
D
75,000
Question 145
916.28 – 72.4 = 728.2 + ?  
A
115.68
B
125.68
C
215.68
D
261.04
Question 146
Anil invested an amount for three years at a simple interest of 9 p.c.p.a. He got an amount of Rs. 19,050/- at the end of three years. What principal amount did he invest?  
A
Rs. 14,500/-
B
Rs. 11,050/-
C
Rs. 15,000/-
D
Rs. 10,950/-
Question 147
Amar started a business investing Rs. 45,000/. Six months later Prakash joined him with Rs. 30,000/-. In what ratio should the profit they earn be distributed at the end of the year?  
A
3:1
B
3:4
C
3:2
D
data inadequate
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