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AP EAMCET Online Mock Test

AP EAMCET MCQ Questions Answers for medical entrance and engineering exams subjects : Maths, Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology). This mock test having 20-25 questions in each subjects, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this AP EAMCET test question details at the end of the quiz.

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AP EAMCET 2016 Andhra Pradesh Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test questions answers are applicable for any kind of medical entrance test (UG) , engineering entrance  preparation in India. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers AP EAMCET critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking all India level exam.



For more resources you can go through AP EAMCET Previous Year Question Papers Answers

AP EAMCET Online Mock Test = Chemistry

Congratulations - you have completed AP EAMCET Online Mock Test = Chemistry.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The extent of Physisorption of an absorbate increases with : 
A
increase in temperature
B
decrease in surface area of the adsorbent
C
decrease in pressure of adsorbate
D
decrease in temperature
Question 2
Which one of the following statements is not cortect ? 
A
In the Dewar’s method for the separation of noble gases, activated coconut charcoal is used.
B
Krypton is used in miners cap lamps.
C
The electron affinity values of noble gases are nearly equal to zero.
D
Xenon gives different colours when mixed with mercury vapour.
Question 3
Which one of the following statements is trite for the optical rotation exhibited by (2K, 3K) and (2S, 3S)-dibromobutanes ? 
A
The direction and magnitude are same
B
The direction is opposite, but magnitude is same
C
The direction is same, but magnitude different
D
Both the direction and magnitude are different
Question 4
In a reversible reaction at equilibrium the net heat change of the reaction is 
A
Positive
B
Negative
C
Zero
D
Cannot be predicted
Question 5
Which one of the following is not correct 
A
Oxygen shows +1 oxidation state in
B
Roasting removes volatile impurities like As and Sb.
C
S is pink in colour.
D
Cobalt chloride acts as a catalyst to decompose bleaching powder.
Question 6
Which one of the following is not a method for preparing chloroform ? (I) Heating ethyl alcohol with chlorine and alkali (II) Heating acetone with bleaching powder and water (III) Heating chloral hydrate with aqueous sodium hydroxide (IV) Distillation of acetone over iron filings and water 
A
II
B
I
C
III
D
IV
Question 7
Rate of a reaction can he expressed by Arrhenius equation k = A. In this equation, E represents : 
A
The energy above which not all the colliding molecules will react
B
The energy below which colliding molecules will not reacts
C
The total energy of the reacting molecules at temperature T
D
The fraction of molecu1e with energy greater than the activation energy of the reaction
Question 8
Assertion (A): The bond dissociation energy of fluorine is less than bromine.Reason (R): In fluorine molecule, large lone pair electronic repulsions and appreciable internuclear repulsions are present.  
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true but (R) is not true
D
(A) is not true but (R) is true
Question 9
With increase in Principa’ Quantum number n, the energy. difference between adjacent energy levels in Hydrogen atom : 
A
Increases
B
Decreases
C
Remains constant
D
Decreases for lower values of n and increases for higher values of it
Question 10
BaS is insoiuble in wuter due to its 
A
High hydration energy
B
High lattice energy
C
High ionization energy
D
High kinetic energy
Question 11
The ratio of moles of hydrogen produced when two moles of aluminium react with excess HCI and NaOH separately is 
A
1: 1
B
1:2
C
2: 1
D
3 : 2
Question 12
The number of a and it bonds present in 1-butene-3-yne is : 
A
7 and 3
B
5 and 5
C
7 and 2
D
6 and 4
Question 13
Which one of the following statements is not correct 9 
A
The. conductivity decreases from L to C in the hydrated ions.
B
The stability of +5 oxidation state decreases from nitrogen to bismuth.
C
In Hall’s process, bauxite is fused with NC.
D
The atomic radius in III A group elements increases from boron to aluminium and thereafter remains constant upto gallium.
Question 14
Which one of the following statement* is not true for glucose 7 
A
a-D (+)-glucose undergoes mutarotation
B
It has four asymmetric carbons in Fischer projection formula
C
It gives saccharic acid with ‘T’ollen’s reagent
D
It reacts with hydroxyl amine
Question 15
The vapor of a sub8tance effuses through a small hole at the rate of 1.3 times faster than SO2 gas at 1 atm. preaure and 500 K. The molecular weight of the gas is : 
A
49.2
B
37.9
C
41.6
D
83.2
Question 16
Which one of the following statements is correct for  ? 
A
It reduces ferricyanide to ferrocyanide in acid medium.
B
It oxidises lead monoxide to lead dioxide
C
It acts as a reducing agent in the decolourisation of acidified KMn.
D
it oxidises hydrides of chlorine and bromine to their diatomic gases.
Question 17
After removing the hard shell of an egg by dissolving in dil HC1, a semiperm eable membrane is visible. If such an egg is kept in a saturated solution of common salt the size of the egg will 
A
shrink
B
grow
C
remain the same
D
first shrink and then grow larger
Question 18
Ltttice energy of an ionic compound depends upon 
A
Charge on the ion only
B
Size of the ion only
C
Charge on the ion and size of the ion
D
Packing of its ions only
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AP EAMCET Online Mock Test = Physics

Congratulations - you have completed AP EAMCET Online Mock Test = Physics .You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
A boy of mass 50 kg is standing on a weighing machine placed on the floor of a lift. The machine reads his weight in Newtons. What is the reading of the machine if the lift is moving upwards with t uniform speed of 10 m/.( g= 10 m/) 
A
510 N
B
480 N
C
490 N
D
500 N
Question 2
A body of mass 5 kg makes an elastic collision with another body at rest and continues to move in the original direction after collision with a velocity equal to 1/10th of its original velocity. Then the mass of the second body is 
A
4.09 kg
B
0.5kg
C
5kg
D
5.09 kg
Question 3
A simple pendulum is executing SHM with a period of 6 sec between two extreme positions B and C about a point ‘0’. if thc length of the arc BC is 10 cm, how long will the pendulum take the move from position C to a position D towards ‘0’ exactly midway between ‘C’ and ‘0’. 
A
0.5 sec
B
1 sec
C
1.5 sec
D
3 sec
Question 4
The volume of mercury in the bulb of a thermometer is  m3. The area of cross-section of the capillary tube is 2 x  sq. m. If the temperature is raised by 100°C, the increase in the length of the mercury column is 🙁 = 18 x /°C) 
A
18 cm
B
0.9 cm
C
9 cm
D
1.8 cm
Question 5
How much heat energy in joules must be supplied to 14 gms of nitrogen at room temperature to raise its temperature by 40°C at constant pressure ? (Mol. wt. of  = 28 gm, R = constant) 
A
50 R
B
60 R
C
70 R
D
80 R
Question 6
A theatre of volume 100 x 40 x 10 can accommodate 1000 visitors. The reverberation time of the theatre when empty is 8.5 sec. if the theatre is now filled with 500 visitors, occupying the front-half seats, the reverberation time changes to 6.2 seconds. The average absorption coefficient of each visitor is nearly : 
A
0.6
B
0.5
C
0.45
D
- 0.7
Question 7
An observer is standing 500 ints away from a vertical hill. Starting from a point between the observer and the hill, a police van moves towards the bill with uniform speed sounding a siren of frequency of 1000 Hz. If the frequency of the sound heard by the observer directly from the siren is 970 Hz, the frequency of the sound heard by the observer after reflection from the hill (Hz) is nearly :(Velocity of sound in air = 330 m/s) 
A
1042
B
1031
C
1022
D
1012
Question 8
Two light beams produce interference pattern to give maxima and minima on the screen. If the intensities of the Light beams are in the ratio of 9 : 4, then the ratio of intensities of maxima and minima is 
A
3:2
B
5:1
C
25:1
D
9:1
Question 9
A bar magnet of 10 cm long is kept with its N-pole pointing north. A neutral point is formed at a distance of 15 cm from each pole. Given the horizontal component of earth’s field is 0.4 Gauss, the pole strength of the magnet is 
A
9 amps-m
B
6.75 amps-m
C
27 amps-m
D
13.5 amps-m
Question 10
In Millikan’s oil drop experiment, a charged oil drop of mass 3.2 x  kg is held stationary between two parallel plates 6 mm apart, by applying apotential difference of 1200 V between them. How many electrons does the oil drop carry? (g = 10 ) 
A
7
B
8
C
9
D
10
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AP EAMCET Online Mock Test = Zoology

Congratulations - you have completed AP EAMCET Online Mock Test = Zoology.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
In phiuroidea branched arms are seen in 
A
Gorgonocephalus
B
Clypdflster
C
Salmacis
D
Gorgonia
Question 2
Note the following: (a) It is fresh water, metarnerically segmented protostome. (b) The clitellum is absent. (c) It is unisexual. (d) Its larva] form is Trochophore. (e) The nervous system is found in the epidermis. 
A
a, b and e
B
b,c and e
C
b, c and d
D
c, d and e
Question 3
The type of connective is Blue that is associated with the Umbilical cord is : 
A
Arcolar connective tissue
B
Jelly-like connective tissue
C
Adipose connective tissue
D
Reticular connective tissue
Question 4
Note the following: (a) It forms the lining of the cavities of alveoli of the lungs. (b) The forms the linng of wet surfaces like buccal cavity and esophagus. (e) It occurs in the ducts of sweat grinds. (d) It forms the lining of salivary glands and sweat glands. (e) It is a loose connective tissue.  
A
a and d
B
b and c
C
c and a
D
d and e
Question 5
Which stage in the life cycle of Tuna plum, infects the intermediate host? 
A
Hyacinth larva
B
Oncosphere
C
Cysticercus larva
D
Miracidium
Question 6
In pheretima, gizzard, buckle cavity, pharynx, esophagus, pharyngeal nephritis receive the blood from this blood vessel : 
A
Supra oesophageal
B
Lateral oesophageal
C
Dorsal Blood
D
Subneural
Question 7
The location of lymph glands in Pheretima is : 
A
4th, 5th and 6th segments
B
10th to 20th segnwnts
C
26th to the last segments
D
13th segment
Question 8
Note the following: An insect whose mouthparts are biting and chewing type in the larval condition, while they are siphoning type in the adult and this insect gives an economically important substance during yet another stage of ts development. The insect is : 
A
Anopheles
B
Lucifer
C
Bombyx
D
Apis
Question 9
In cockroach which of the following is the principal motor centre: 
A
Supraoesophageal ganglia
B
Suboesophageal ganglia
C
Metathoracic ganglia
D
Abdominal ganglia
Question 10
The growth of a population without limit at its maximal rate and also that, rates of immigration and emigration are equal, then it is chatted 
A
Carrying capacity
B
Biotic potential
C
Positive growth
D
Negative growth
Question 11
The pair of Amphibians found in Indian Peninsula is 
A
Amphiuma
B
Tylototriton and Ichthyophis
C
Hyla and Ambystoma
D
Psittacoses and Apteryx
Question 12
In coelomates the problem of diffusion of food from gut to tissues is solved by: 
A
The presence of coelomic fluid
B
Churning the food within the body cavity
C
Developing a circulatory system
D
Developing gut associated glands
Question 13
Ovoviviparity is seen in this caedllian : 
A
Wuchereria
B
Typh1onectus
C
Ichthyophis
D
Uraeotyphlus
Question 14
A hormone secreted by the endocrinal cells of duodenal mucosu which influences the release of pancreatic juice is 
A
Relaxin
B
Cholecystokinin
C
Secretin
D
Progesteron
Question 15
Left shift of oxyhaemoglobin curve is noticed under : 
A
Normal temperature and pH
B
Low temperature and high pH
C
Low pH and high temperature
D
Low pH and low temperature
Question 16
Hypochromic microcytic anaemia and Leucopenia are caused by the deficiency of …………………………………………… respectively. - 
A
Pyridoxine and Riboflavin
B
Piyridoxine and Folacin
C
Biotin arid Foacin
D
Biotin and Cyanocobaamin
Question 17
The glycoprotein layer between oocytes and cuboidal cells in ovary of rabbit is 
A
Membrana granulosa
B
Zona pellucida
C
Corpus luteurn
D
Zona reticulata
Question 18
During the muscle contraction which zone decreases 
A
1 zone
B
Z zone
C
H zone
D
M zone
Question 19
The extinct reptiles without temporal fossae belong to : 
A
Chelonia
B
Synaptosauria
C
Ichthyopterygia
D
Coty1osauria
Question 20
A specific nucleotide sequence to which RNA polymerase attaches to initiate trancription of m-RNA from a gene 
A
Promoter gene
B
Structural gene
C
Operon
D
Regulator gene
Question 21
A selection that acts to iminate one extreme from an array of phenotypes is: 
A
Disruptive
B
Directional
C
Stabilizing
D
Coevolution
Question 22
Tn poultry first Dewormg is usually done around this age: 
A
4 weeks
B
8 weeks
C
12 weeks
D
16 weeks
Question 23
Theyquenee of Nitrogen Bases (Triplet) on t-RNA is: 
A
Anticodon
B
Terminating codon
C
Degenerate codon
D
Initiating codon
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AP EAMCET Online Mock Test = Botany

Congratulations - you have completed AP EAMCET Online Mock Test = Botany.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Identify the scientists worked extensively on chlorophyllous and non- chlorophyllous Thallophytic, respectively: 
A
lyengar
B
Swamiriathan
C
Mehta
D
Mahesvari
Question 2
Which one of the following conditions is seen in the roots of a plant having submerged assimilatory roots and spongy petioles? 
A
Triarch
B
Monarch
C
Tetrarch
D
Diarch
Question 3
In the flowers of a plant, the ovarian part is fused, but styles and stigmas are free. Its ovary becomes unilocular due to breakdown of partition wall and the ovules are attached Lo a central axis. Identify the plant. 
A
Dian thus
B
Abutilon
C
Nymphaca
D
Michelia
Question 4
In a DNA segment having six coils, there are 22 nitrogen base pairs linked by two hydrogen bonds how many cytosine bases are found in the segment? 
A
22
B
13
C
44
D
76
Question 5
G. H. Shull observed inbreeding depression in a plant. Miller and Lethem isolated ahormone from the immature seeds of that plant. Which of the following character is NOT associated with that plant? 
A
Alactostelie condition in stem.
B
Bundlesheath in leaf.
C
Chromosomal number endosperms cell is 30
D
Medulla absent in the root.
Question 6
The tracheophytecharacterized by habitual heterophylly, absence of companion cells in phloem arid pence of vessels in the xylem is 
A
Drimys
B
Pteris
C
Selaginella
D
Gnetum
Question 7
Which one of the following trimmed in Spirogyra is different based on its nucleus? 
A
Zygospore
B
Azygospore
C
Aplanospore
D
Akinete
Question 8
Identify the fungus which produces chlamydospores from dikaryotic mycelium. 
A
Spheclogthecasorghi
B
Rhizopusslonifer
C
Pyriculariaorzae
D
Collectrotrihumfaicatm
Question 9
In photoactive plants, during day time the following ionic flux of guard cell is directly involves the expenditure of energy: 
A
Outward movement of malatc.
B
Inward movement of pntassiuni ions
C
Outward movement of protons
D
Inward movement of chloride
Question 10
The reaction which is catalyzed by a protein that is not found in the matrix of mitochondria is
A
Conversionof pyruvic acid to acetyl coenzyme A
B
Oxidativedecarboxylation on of a-keloglutaric acid
C
Oxidation of succinic acid
D
Cleavage of succinic coenzyme A
Question 11
which shows the correct descending sequence with reference to number of cohorts? 
A
Thalami florae, Calyciflorae,Disciflorac, Inferac.
B
Ileteromerac, 1nferae Discillorac, Calycíflorae
C
BicarpcItaiw, Disciflorae, Ileteronierae, Ca1yciflora
D
DisciIlorae, Thai amifiorac, Calyciflurde, Ileteronierac
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