Cardiology Quiz Question Answers

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Cardiology Quiz Question Answers (Total 20 MCQs)

Cardiology Quiz (Medical) 21 Question Answers

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Question 1
Regarding ticagrelor which of the statement is true
A
Irreversible allosteric antagonist
B
Interacts with CYP3A4 inhibitors
C
Interacts with CYP2C9
D
aspirin doses less than 100 mg/day decreases its effectiveness
Question 2
Regarding bivalrudin which of the statement is true
A
irreversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI)
B
It inhibits both circulating and clot-bound thrombin, while also inhibiting thrombin-mediated platelet activation and aggregation.
C
Since it is cleared from plasma by a combination of non-renal mechanisms and proteolytic cleavage clearance unrelated to renal dysfunction
D
In HEAT-PPCI trial bivalirudin reduced the incidence of major adverse ischemic events in the setting of Primary PCI
Question 3
With regards to routine treadmill Test,
A
development of 1 mm or more of J point depression with a relatively flat ST-segment slope ( < 0.7 to 1 mV/sec), at 80 ms after the J point (ST80) is considered to be an abnormal response
B
if ST-segment depression is 0.1 mV or greater at rest the exercise ECG becomes more specific
C
ST-segment depression localizes the coronary artery involved
D
Exercise-induced ST-segment elevation is relatively non-specific as compared to depressions
Question 4
The appropriately arranged timing sequence is 1.Pericardial knock, 2. tumor plop, 3. opening snap, 4. physiological S3, 5. pathological S3 
A
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B
1, 3, 2, 5, 4
C
3, 1, 2, 5, 4
D
3, 1, 2, 4, 5
Question 5
Prominent X decent in JVP is not seen in following condition
A
Constrictive pericarditis
B
Cardiac tamponade
C
ASD
D
TR
Question 6
"Square wave" arterial pressure response to Valsalva manoeuvre is seen in all except
A
ASD
B
VSD
C
MS
D
Heart failure
Question 7
All are true about Hangout interval except
A
Decreased by increased capcitance and decreased impedence
B
Ventricular mechanical systole is the sum of isovolumic contraction plus the ejection period minus the hangout interval
C
Increased hanout interval is directly proportional to the S2 spilt duration
D
It is about 15ms for systemic circulation and 43-86ms for pulmonary circulation
Question 8
All are true about S2 split except
A
Type I and II S2 split can be identified bedside
B
Paradoxical split seen in severe AS with LV dysfunction
C
Caused due to early pulmonic valve closure or delayed aortic valve closure
D
Valsalva maneuver in reversed S2 split patients, results in widening of S2 split in strain phase
Question 9
Characteristics of S3 are all except
A
Non localised
B
Low frequency
C
Heard best with the bell of the stethoscope
D
Augmented by maneuvers which increase blood flow into the ventricle
Question 10
Wreathlike AV anastomosis on fundus examination is seen in
A
Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
B
Coarctation of Aorta
C
Takayasu arteritis
D
Malignant hypertension
Question 11
Transient occlusion of both brachial arteries augments the murmurs of all except
A
MR
B
VSD
C
PR
D
AR
Question 12
Which of the Following is the wrong statement about bioprosthetic valve
A
Bioprosthetic valve in mitral position is usually associated with a mid systolic murmur
B
In normally functioning Aortic prosthesis, a mild diastolic murmur can be heard
C
Decrease in OC or CC of prosthetic valve needs further evaluation
D
High pitched or holosystolic apical murmur signifies paravalvular or regurgitation
Question 13
M Mode in MS following is true
A
Decreased EF slope
B
Posterior movement of PML
C
Paradoxical septal movement
D
Systolic Anterior Motion
Question 14
All of the following are Common causes of acute AR except
A
Infective endocarditis
B
Aortic dissection
C
Marfan's syndrome
D
Myocardial Infarction
Question 15
All of the following are true regarding acute onset AR except
A
S4 is consistently present
B
Absent peripheral sign
C
Presystolic accentuation is present
D
LV dilatation is absent
Question 16
Which of the following is abnormal finding of aortic prosthesis
A
Opening click
B
Diastolic murmur
C
Closing click
D
systolic ejection murmur
Question 17
All of the following are typical complication of long standing MS except
A
Atrial fibrillation
B
Systemic embolism
C
Right ventricular hypertrophy
D
Left ventricular systolic dysfunction
Question 18
In which of the following condition presence of LV S3 is least likely
A
Mitral Stenosis
B
Mitral Regurgitation
C
Aortic Stenosis
D
Aortic regurgitation
Question 19
In a patient with indication for AVR, concomitant aortic root surgery is indicated if aortic root dimension is more than
A
35mm
B
45mm
C
50mm
D
55 mm
Question 20
Which Statin was used in ASTRONOMER trial
A
Atorvastatin
B
Simvastatin
C
Pitavastatin
D
Rosuvastatin
Question 21
Regarding Explanation for Syncope in Aortic Stenosis which of the following statement is false
A
Decrease cerebral perfusion
B
Vasodepressor response during exercise
C
Transient AF
D
Malfunction of chemoreceptor
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Cardiology Quiz Question Answers (Total 80 MCQs)

Cardiology Quiz (Medical) 80 Question Answers

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Question 1
Post myocardial Infarction pericarditis all are true except
A
Acute pericarditis occurs early within first 3 days
B
Occurs due to antibodies to cardiac tissue causing fibrinous inflammation
C
High dose asprin relieves the chest pain
D
Anticoagulation is not contraindicated
Question 2
Right ventricular systolic dysfunction is suggested when tricuspid annular systolicexcursion (TAPSE) is -
A
<12 mm
B
<14 mm
C
<16 mm
D
<18 mm
Question 3
All of the following are specific for Ventricular tachycardia except:
A
QRS duration > 120 msec
B
Fusion beat
C
Capture beat
D
AV dissociation
Question 4
According to latest lipid guidelines, you will prescribe statins to:
A
Any person of age more than 25 years with LDL more than 150 mg/dl
B
Anyone with age between 40-75 years with diabetes and LDL between 70-189mg/dl
C
Anyone with age between 40-75 years without diabetes and LDL between 70-189mg/dl with estimated 10 year risk of ASCVD > 5%
D
All current smokers with age > 40 years
Question 5
Following statement is true regarding cardiovascular diseases in men compared to woman
A
The percentage of all deaths secondary to cardiovascular disease is higher among women than among men
B
Coronary artery disease is more frequently associated with dysfunction of the coronary microcirculation in man than in woman
C
Exercise ECG has higher diagnostic accuracy in the prediction of epicardial obstruction in woman than in man
D
The absolute number of deaths secondary to cardiovascular disease has declined over the past decades in women.
Question 6
Which of the following PSVT most common among PSVT referred for ablation?
A
Atrial tachycardia
B
AV node reentry tachycardia
C
concealed pathway mediated tachycardia
D
manifest pathway mediated tachycardia
Question 7
ST elevation may occurs in all of the following condition except:
A
Hypothermia
B
Hypokalemia
C
Pulmonary embolism
D
Hypercalcemia
Question 8
Regarding gp IIb IIIa inhibitors in NSTE-ACS all are true except
A
Abcximab has earliest onset of action
B
Tirofiban and ebtifibatide have longer half-lives than abcximab
C
Current available evidence does not support the routine use in paients on DAPT
D
They can cause severe thrombocytopenia in some patients
Question 9
High Risk (> 3% Annual Risk for Death or Myocardial Infarction) on noninvasive testing includes- 
A
CAC score > 1000 Agatston units
B
Severe stress-induced LV dysfunction (peak exercise LVEF < 45% or drop in LVEF with stress 10%)
C
1-mm ST-segment depression occurring with exertional symptoms
D
1-vessel CAD with 70% stenosis or moderate CAD stenosis (50-69% stenosis) in 2 arteries on CCTA
Question 10
Which of the following statement is true regarding chronic constrictive pericaditis
A
Marked increase in right ventricular systolic pressures usually more than 60 mmHg
B
A separation of the left and right ventricular diastolic pressures by > 5 mmHg
C
Concordant changes in left and right ventricular diastolic filling pressures with inspiration (both increase)
D
Discordant pressure changes in the right and left ventricles with inspiration (right ventricular systolic pressure increases while left ventricular systolic pressure decreases)
Question 11
Sudden death during sleep is feature of which of the following condition
A
Arrythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia
B
LQTS-1
C
LQTS-2
D
LDTS -3
Question 12
IABP is not indicated in following condition
A
Refractory cardiogenic shock
B
Acute MR
C
Acute AR
D
Acute Ventricular Septal Rupture
Question 13
Regarding trans fatty acids all are true except
A
Increase LDL, decrease LDL size, increase TG, and Lpa
B
Repeated cooking in the same oil decreases trans fat intake
C
Associated with increased risk of sudden cardiac death
D
Even low levels(1-3% of total calorie intake) of consumption increases risk
Question 14
Epicardial hyperenhancement in Cardiac MRI is not seen in -
A
Sarcoidosis
B
Anderson fabry disease
C
Amyloidosis
D
Chagas disease
Question 15
Which is not a MAJOR CRITERIA in Framingham criteria for diagnosis of heart failure-
A
PND
B
Hepatomegaly
C
Cardiomegaly
D
Hepatojugular reflux
Question 16
The following statement of Less than ordinary activity causes symptoms in New York Heart Associat ion Funct ional Classificat ion falls into which class?
A
NYHA 1
B
NYHA 2
C
NYHA 3
D
NYHA 4
Question 17
E/A ratio 1.3, DT 160 msec, E/e' 15; findings on ECHO are suggestive of
A
Normal diastolic function
B
LV diastolic dysfunction grade 1
C
LV diastolic dysfunction grade 2
D
LV diastolic dysfunction grade 3
Question 18
Dose of digoxin in premature infants is:
A
20 g/kg
B
30 g/kg
C
40 g/kg
D
50 g/kg
Question 19
Which of the following drug's intake during pregnancy is associated with Ebstein
A
anomaly in baby
B
Ethanol
C
Valproic acid
D
Lithium
Question 20
Which of the following anti arrhythmic drug can cause lupus erythematous like syndrome
A
Amiodarone
B
fleicanide
C
Procainamide
D
Mexilitine
Question 21
The abdominojugular reflex is useful in predicting a pulmonary artery wedge pressure in excess of -- mmHg in patients with heart failure.
A
5 mmHg
B
10 mmHg
C
15 mm Hg
D
20 mm Hg
Question 22
Accesory Pathway & Wolf Parkinson White syndrome is associated with which heart disease?
A
Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
B
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C
Dilated Cardiomyopathy
D
Uhls anomaly
Question 23
Which of the following ionotropic agent does not have ionotropic effect-
A
Milrinone
B
Enoximone
C
Levosimendan
D
Nesiritide
Question 24
Which of the following statement is true regarding class 1 indication for pacemaker in sick sinus syndrome
A
Atrial fibrillation with bradycardia and pauses >5 s
B
Atrial fibrillation with bradycardia and pause > 3 s
C
Atrial fibrillation with bradycardia and pause > 2 s
D
Atrial fibrillation with bradycardia and pause > 6 s
Question 25
Following statement is false regarding Brockenbrough-Braunwald sign
A
seen in hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
B
seen in aortic stenosis
C
Following a premature ventricular contraction, there is an increase in the left ventricular -aorta pressure gradient with simultaneious decrease in the aortic pulse pressure.
D
this phenomenon is elicited by delivering premature ventricular contraction beat in left ventricle.
Question 26
Cardiovascular disorders often present acutely, as in a previously asymptomatic person whose first clinical manifestation is syncope or even sudden death is not seen in following condition
A
Acute myocardial infarction
B
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C
Prolonged QT syndrome
D
Pulmonary stenosis
Question 27
Which of the following murmur is likely to be benign
A
Midsystolic
B
Loud systolic
C
Holosystolic
D
Late systolic
Question 28
Intravascular ultrasound ( IVUS) is better than optical coherence tomographyEvaluation of Ostial left main lesion
A
(OCT) in which of the following condition :
B
Detection of stent malapposition
C
Plaque morphology characterization
D
Thrombus detection
Question 29
All are true about ARVD except:
A
Mutation in genes encoding desmosomes
B
Associated with sudden cardiac death
C
Ventricular tachycardia with LBBB morphology
D
ECG shows epsilon wave.
Question 30
Among antithrombotic agents all is true except:
A
LMWH have higher bioavailability and high factor anti-Xa to anti-IIa activity ratio producing effective blockade in coagulation cascade.
B
Unfractionated heparin is given by intravenous route
C
Factor Xa specific antagonists were studied in OASIS 6 trial
D
Fondaparinux was inferior in PCI patients due to higher risk of stent thrombosis.
Question 31
Reversed or paradoxical splitting does not occurs in
A
Severe Aortic stenosis
B
right ventricular pacing
C
left bundle branch block
D
right bundle branch block
Question 32
Congenital heart disease involving abnormal remodeling of the aortic arch arteries has been associated with maternal deficiencies of which vitamins ?
A
Vitamin A
B
Vitamim B
C
Vitamin C
D
Vitamin D
Question 33
Following cardiac lesion is typically seen in ankylosing spondolytis
A
aortic stenosis
B
aortic regurgitation
C
mitral stenosis
D
mitral regurgitation
Question 34
In cyanotic infant, ECG showing left axis deviation is suggestive of which condition? 
A
TAPVC
B
DORV without PS
C
TGA
D
Tricuspid atresia
Question 35
Most sensitive and specific modality of stress testing is:
A
Exercise ECG
B
Exercise SPECT
C
Dobutamine ECHO
D
Adenosine SPECT
Question 36
Most common reported complication of arterial switch operation on follow up is 
A
Ostial coronary artery disease
B
Supra pulmonary artery stenosis
C
Neo aortic valve regurgitation
D
Ventricular arrhythmias
Question 37
Following statement is false regarding lesion/nodule on body
A
Janeway lesions are nontender
B
Janeway lesions are typically seen on palms & soles
C
Oslers nodes are nontender
D
Oslers nodes are typically seen on the pads of fingers or toes
Question 38
Intensity of the following murmur decreases with hand grip exercise
A
Mitral regurgitation
B
Ventricular Septal Defect
C
aortic regurgitation
D
HOCM
Question 39
All are caused by Loss of function mutation in gene SCN5A except:
A
LQT3
B
CPVT
C
Sick sinus syndrome
D
Cardiac conduction disorder
Question 40
Which of the following statement is false regarding Chronotropic incompetence
A
Defined as failure to reach 85% of predicted maximal heart rate at peak exercise
B
Defined as failure to reach 50% of predicted maximal heart rate at peak exercise
C
Defined as failure to achieve a heart rate > 100 beats/min with exercise
D
Defined as maximal heart rate with exercise less than two standard deviations below that o an age-matched control population
Question 41
For Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) compare the trial with the antiplatelet agent studied and identify the wrong combination.
A
CREDO - Ticlopidine
B
CLARITY-TIMI 28 - clopidogrel
C
TRITON-TIMI 38 - Prsugrel
D
PLATO - ticagrelor
Question 42
Regarding mechanical complications of Acute MI which statement is true
A
Fibrinolysis decreases the risk of septal and free wall rupture
B
Mitral regurgition produces a pansystolic murmer
C
Ventricular septal rupture produces pan-systolic murmer
D
Mechanical complications are commonly seen on day 2 post MI
Question 43
Drug of choice in WPW syndrome and AF with FVR:
A
Adenosine
B
Beta blockers
C
Digoxin
D
Procainamide
Question 44
Adenosine is contraindicated in following situation
A
PSVT in children
B
PSVT in patient with prior cardiac transplant
C
Atrial Tachycardia
D
right ventricular outflow ventricular tachycardia
Question 45
All of the following gene mutations are seen in Long QT Syndrome except: 
A
KCNQ1
B
KCNH2
C
SCN5A
D
RYR2
Question 46
All of the Following are cardinal manifestations of cardiac disease except
A
Fatigue
B
Edema
C
Chest discomfort
D
Syncope
Question 47
Regarding non-invasive testing in NSTE-ACS patients which is not true
A
Safe after 24 hours of stabilization and pain relief
B
Symptom limited TMT is recommended for patients with baseline ECG ST-segment abnormalities
C
Stress Echocardiography and stress MPI have higher sensitivity than TMT.
D
CT coronary Angiography can also be used to establish diagnosis of unstable plaque.
Question 48
The bidirectional Ventricular tachycardia seen in:
A
Brugada syndrome
B
CPVT
C
LQTS
D
SQTS
Question 49
Which of the following drug has been used to suppress frequent episodes of ventricular tachycardia in Brugada sysndrome
A
Flecanide
B
Ivabradine
C
amiodarone
D
quinidine
Question 50
Differential cyanosis is seen in in a patient with a
A
large patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) and secondary pulmonary hypertension
B
large ventricular septal defect with secondary pulmonary hypertension
C
large atrial septal defect with secondary pulmonary hypertension
D
Idiopathic Severe Pulmonary hypertension
Question 51
Which of the following statement is false about Taussing-bing anomaly
A
Resembles corrected TGA with non restrictive VSD
B
Reverse differential cyanosis may occur
C
PA saturation always higher than aorta
D
High incidence of aortic arch malformation associated.
Question 52
QRS complex on surface ECG corresponds to which part of transmembrane action
A
potential
B
Phase 0
C
Phase 1
D
Phase 1 & initial part of 2
Question 53
Following are the true statements regarding Hyperthyroidism except
A
Is commonly seen in elderly
B
Is commonly associated with bradycardia
C
Is associated with atrial fibrillation
D
Could be one of the cause of unexplained heart failure
Question 54
Coronary angiography may not be indicated in which of the following condition
A
Acute coronary syndrome
B
Multivessel CAD
C
CAD with left ventricular dysfunction
D
CAD whose angina has responded to medical treatment
Question 55
Regarding management of chronic stable angina which of the following statements is true -
A
In single vessel disease with proximal LAD involvement only PCI is recommended.
B
In two vessel disease with proximal LAD involvement surgery or PCI can be done
C
In three vessel disease with syntax score of 40 PCI should be done.
D
In left main disease with syntax score 23-32 PCI cannot be done.
Question 56
Congenital heart disease involving the outflow tract can be associated with other defects of neural crest, such as
A
Craniofacial defects
B
Nail defect
C
Lower limb defect
D
Sternal defect
Question 57
All are true about catecholamine sensitive polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) except:
A
Caused by mutation in ryanodine receptor.
B
Exercise associated with Sudden cardiac death.
C
Bidirectional VT not seen
D
Treatment of choice is beta blocker and ICD.
Question 58
Regarding fibrinolytic agents which is true:
A
Tenectaplase dose is weight independent
B
Alteplase is given as a double blous
C
Tenectaplase causes maximum fibrinogen depletion
D
Tenectaplase is the most fibrin specific
Question 59
Which of the following finding has the highest positive predictive value in diagnosis of elevated filling pressure in patients with heart failure-
A
Rales over more than 1/3 lung field.
B
Third heart sound
C
Orthopnea
D
Ascites (moderate to massive)
Question 60
Which of the following was a negative trial in primary prevention ICD trials-
A
MADIT
B
DEFINITE
C
CABG PATCH
D
MUSTT
Question 61
Following is the typical cardiac manifestation of Lyme disease
A
Fluctuating AV block
B
Inapproprite Sinus tachycardia
C
Ventricular tachycardia
D
supraventricular tachycardia
Question 62
All are caused by Loss of function mutation in gene SCN5A except:
A
LQT3
B
CPVT
C
Sick sinus syndrome
D
Cardiac conduction disorder
Question 63
Under resting conditions, maximum pressure drop in coronary circulation occurs in
A
Epicardial coronaries
B
Resistance vessels
C
Capillaries
D
Venules
Question 64
Sinus tachycardia with S1Q3T3 is typically seen in
A
acute rheumatic fever
B
acute pericarditis
C
acute myocarditis
D
acute pulmonary embolism
Question 65
Leftward 'P' wave axis in ASD is suggestive of :
A
Ostium primum ASD
B
ASD with septal aneurysm
C
IVC type of ASD
D
Sinus venosus ASD
Question 66
Absolute flow reserve can be calculated by:
A
Optical Coherence Tomography
B
Adenosine induced vasodilation followed by thallium SPECT scanning
C
PET perfusion scan
D
Quantitative coronary angiography
Question 67
Palmar crease xanthomas are specific for which type of hyperlipoproteinemia ?
A
type 1
B
type 2
C
type 3
D
type 4
Question 68
Dip and plateau diastolic waveform occur in all of the following condition except:
A
Constrictive cardiomyopathy
B
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
C
RV ischemia
D
Cardiac tamponade
Question 69
Supravalvular Aortic Stenosis is associated with which of the following condition
A
Down syndrome
B
Turner syndrome
C
Williams syndrome
D
Rubella syndrome
Question 70
Spontaneous coronary dissections following statement is false
A
Female preponderance
B
can present with chronic stable angina, acute coronary syndrome or even sudden cardiac death
C
in female post menopausal state is a risk factor
D
smoking is a risk factor
Question 71
"Figure of eight " appearance in chest x-ray is typically seen in:
A
TAPVC
B
Tricuspid atresia
C
TGA
D
Truncus arterosus
Question 72
In which Eisenmenger syndrome, cardiomegaly is noted
A
ASD
B
VSD
C
PDA
D
AP Window
Question 73
Following statement is true regarding cardiovascular deaths in adults.
A
Approximately 50% of these are sudden death
B
Approximately 25% of these are sudden death
C
Approximately 10% of these are sudden death
D
Approximately 5% of these are sudden death
Question 74
Statements are true regarding A wave in JVP
A
cannon a wave occurs with atrioventricular dissociation
B
cannon wave during Tachycardia identifies the rhythm as PSVT
C
A wave is present with atrial fibrillation
D
cannon a wave occurs with sinus tachycardia
Question 75
In wide complex tachycardia which of the following feature is not suggestive of Ventricular Tachycardia
A
AV dissociation
B
A monophasic s wave in AVR lead
C
A monophasic R wave in AVR lead
D
A concordant R wave in v1-v6 lead
Question 76
Malar telangiectasias are seen in patients
A
Advanced Pulmonary stenosis
B
Advanced Aortic stenosis
C
Advanced Tricuspid stenosis
D
Advanced Mitral stenosis
Question 77
WHICH of the statement is true regarding stroke with reference to cardiac diseas
A
Transient atrial arrhythmia could cause stroke
B
Transient bradycardia can cause stroke
C
Sinus arrhythmia can cause stroke
D
Sinus tachycardiac can cause stroke
Question 78
Which of the following facts are true about Ivabradine except
A
acts by reducing the heart rate via specific inhibition of the funny channel(If) at SA node
B
indicated for the symptomatic treatment of chronic stable angina
C
A common side effect is luminous phenomenon
D
In BEAUTIFUL study for coronary artery disease and left ventricle dysfunction (ejection fraction < 40%) ivabradine showed a significant reduction in the mortality.
Question 79
Which of the following statement regarding junctional ectopic Atrial tachycardia isfalse?
A
Rarely seen in children
B
Commonly seen in post-opertive period in children with congenital heart disease
C
AV dissociation may be present
D
may occur for short period after AVNRT ablation
Question 80
The following statement is false regarding the first clinical manifestation of coronary artery disease in previously asymptomatic person
A
May present as sudden cardiac death,
B
May present as acute myocardial infarction
C
May present as stroke
D
May present as seizure
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