# CETPPMC / CETPPDC Online Mock Test

CETPPMC i.e. Common Entrance Test for Pondicherry Private Medical Colleges Question Answers  CETPPDC i.e Common Entrance Test for Pondicherry Private Dental Colleges Online Practice Test – Online Mock Test.

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## CETPPMC / CETPPDC Online Mock Test

JbigDeaL also will help you to participates in CETPPMC/DC 2017 – MBBS/BDS Admission Test online Mock Test. By participating in this online practice test you can judge your CETPPMC/DC 2016 exam preparation.  So check this free mock test on CETPPMC/DC.

But apart from this mock test or quiz you can check CETPPMC/DC Previous Year Papers and CETPPMC/DC Exam 2016 details.

 Mock Test Subjects No. MCQs in Mock Test Physics 50 Chemistry 50 Biology (Botany and Zoology) 40 Total Quiz Question 140

## CETPPMC / CETPPDC Physics Mock Test

Congratulations - you have completed CETPPMC / CETPPDC Physics Mock Test. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
 Question 1
The ratio of fraction of displacement of mass with which of the following quantities is constant if its motion is simple harmonic?
 A Velocity B Acceleration C Time period D Mass
 Question 2
If the maximum acceleration of motion of a particle is 16 m/s2 and the maximum velocity Is 24 m/s, then amplitude of the particle will be
 A 36m B 20m C 16 m D None of these
 Question 3
Two wires A and B are made from the same material. The ratio of lengths and diameters respectively are 1:2 and 2:1. If these are stretched by a force, then the ratio of these expansion of lengths will be
 A 2:1 B 1:4 C 1:8 D 8:1
 Question 4
The gas is expanded in such a way so that its pressure and volume laws follow pV2 = constant. In this process, the gas will become
 A hot B cold C nor hot neither cold D first hot after that cold
 Question 5
The time period of simple pendulum depends on
 A length B mass C momentum D density
 Question 6
A particle of mass 0.10 kg is executing simple harmonic motion at the rate of 20 oscillation/s2 and its amplitude is 0.05 m. Its energy at equilibrium position will be
 A 2 J B 4 J C 1 J D zero
 Question 7
When any rigid body is in rotational motion about any axis then what is the same for all particles?
 A Angular velocity B Linear velocity C Radius D Linear acceleration
 Question 8
The emitted energy from any body depends on
 A temperature B nature of matter C area D None of these
 Question 9
Absolute temperature is that temperature at which
 A molecular motion of all particles becomes zero B molecules move randomly C gas’s atoms change to liquid D None of the above
 Question 10
A tuning fork is placed on the table. It produces maximum sound due to
 A beat B resonance C interference D stationary waves
 Question 11
A body cools down from 61°C to 59°C in 4 min. If the temperature of atmosphere is 30°C, then the time taken to cool it from 51°C to 49°C will be
 A 4 min B 2 min C 6 min D 8 min
 Question 12
Temperature is a measurement of degree of coldness or hotness of an object. The definition is based on
 A Zeroth law of thermodynamics B First law of thermodynamics C Second law of thermodynamics D Newton’s law of cooling
 Question 13
 Question 14
If root mean square velocity for hydrogen gas is 318 m/s and density is 8.99 xl(T5 kg/m3 then the pressure of gas will be
 A 3 atm B 1 atm C 2 atm D None of these
 Question 15
pV/ kT represents
 A number of molecules B number of moles C universal gas constant D None of the above
 Question 16
The spherical shape of rain drop is due to
 A surface tension B viscosity C elasticity D gravity
 Question 17
To cool a liquid rapidly, cooling system should be used
 A in middle B on head C any point D None of these
 Question 18
A stone is shot straight upward with a speed of 20 m/s from a tower 200 m high. The speed with which it strikes the ground Is approximately
 A 60 m/s B 65 m/s C 70 m/s D 75 m/s
 Question 19
When light ray goes from air to water, then its quality that remains unchanged is
 A frequency B wavelength C speed D None of these
 Question 20
Sources are in phase when
 A first phase is constant with the time B first phase changes with the time C first phase is constant with the displacement D None of the above
 Question 21
Find the fundamental frequency of a closed pipe. if the length of pipe is 1 m. (speed of sound in air = 320 m/s)
 A 320 Hz B 160 Hz C 80Hz D 40Hz
 Question 22
The musical interval between two tones of frequencies 400 Hz and 200 Hz is
 A 2 B 200 C 1 D None of these
 Question 23
If in diffraction by single slit, the width of slit is equal to wavelength of light, then what happened at the screen?
 A Image of slit B Diffraction band C Equal illuminate D Unequal illuminate
 Question 24
The object at distance of 20 cm is placed in front of convex lens of focal length 10 cm, where will be image formed?
 A 10 cm B 5 cm C 20 cm D 25 cm
 Question 25
Two tuning forks of frequencies 256 and 258 Hz produce 5 beats/s with the third tuning fork. The frequency of third tuning fork will be
 A 120 Hz B 115 Hz C 105 Hz D 95 Hz
 Question 26
The electric field gets induced by changing magnetic force lines passing through a conductor.This can be understood by which law?
 A Faraday’s law B Ampere’s law C Lenz’s law D None of these
 Question 27
In a transformer, ep = 110 V and fig = 440 V,  then its round ratio will be
 A 4:1 B 1:4 C 1:3 D 1:2
 Question 28
Generator generates electric current. In actual, it is a source of
 A inducted force B emf C electric force D None of these
 Question 29
Lenz’s law is accordance on
 A conservation of energy B conservation of charge C conservation of momentum D None of the above
 Question 30
When the current flows from the conductor, then force above of magnetic field is
 A in circular form around the wire B near the wire and parallel to wire C near the wire and perpendicular to wire D None of the above
 Question 31
On the basis which of the following a nucleus can be explained?
 A By nuclear liquid drop model B By Thomson model C By Rutherford model D None of the above
 Question 32
Increasing the principle quantum number, the energy gap between consequence energy state
 A increases B decreases C remains unchange D None of these
 Question 33
First law of Kirchhoff is accordance on
 A conservation of charge B conservation of energy C conservation of momentum D None of the above
 Question 34
For non-conductors, the forbidden energy gap is
 A 5 eV B 1.1 eV C 20 eV D None of these
 Question 35
Change of AC to DC is called
 A rectification B polarization C amplification D None of these
 Question 36
Diffraction of electron beam is proved by
 A Davisson-Germer B Berg C Newton D Einsteen
 Question 37
On the basis of which photoelectric effect is explained?
 A Relativity theory B The electromagnetic waves of light C Energy spectrum of atoms D None of the above
 Question 38
The valancy of carbon atom is
 A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4
 Question 39
What is valancy of impurity added for donar atoms?
 A Pentavalent B Trivalent C Tertravalent D None of these
 Question 40
The energy needed to remove the one electron from neutral helium atom is 24.6 eV. Then the energy needed to remove both the electrons from neutral helium atom is
 A 79.0 eV B 51.8 eV C 49.2 eV D 38.2 eV
 Question 41
Internal resistance of cell does not depend upon the
 A current taken by cell B distance between the electrode C concentration of electrolyte D emf of cell
 Question 42
Charge is quantized. This prove from
 A experiment of Devisson- Jarmer B effect of Compton-scattering C Millikans oil drop experiment D Raman-scattering
 Question 43
In an induction coil with resistance, the induced emf will be maximum when
 A the switch is put on due to high resistance B the switch is put off due to high resistance C the switch is put on due to low resistance D the switch is put off due to low resistance
 Question 44
In stationary waves, the nodes have
 A maximum energy B maximum change in pressure and density C maximum change in distortion D All of the above
 Question 45
The ratio of diameter of 4th semi-frequency zone to 9th semi-frequency zone will be
 A 2/3 B 4/9 C 1/4 D 16/81
 Question 46
The nature of circuit is antiresonant of maximum frequency from resonant frequency will be
 A resistance B capacitance C inductance D All of these
 Question 47
At NTP for the same volume of two gases of constant unit will be
 A the total number of molecule B average kinetic energy C square mean root velocity D mean free path
 Question 48
At normal temperature for the diatomic gas, the number of degree of freedom is
 A 7 B 6 C 5 D 4
 Question 49
In capillery, meniscus of mercury is
 A concave B convex C plane D circular
 Question 50
If the displacement of simple pendulum at any time is 0.02 m and acceleration is 2 m/ s2, then in this time angular velocity will be
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## CETPPMC / CETPPDC Chemistry Mock Test

Congratulations - you have completed CETPPMC / CETPPDC Chemistry Mock Test . You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
 Question 1
Which of the following has bond dissociation energy 600 k J/mol?
 A N­-N B C-H C C-C D H-H
 Question 2
LIA1H4 is
 A a reducing agent B a oxidising agent C a electrophilic agent D a nucleophilic agent
 Question 3
The reaction mechanism of the following reaction is done by >C==C<+ X X-- Product
 Question 4
Which of the following is not an ore of magnesium?
 A Magnasite B Dolomite C Gypsum D Carnalite
 Question 5
Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction with conc.H2S04 gives
 A p-aminophenol B o-aminophenol C m—aminophenol D Both (a) and
 Question 6
MeOH — Me + OH yellow     red In acidic medium solution will be
 A red B yellow C blue D colourless
 Question 7
When a solution passes from a membrane, then the solvent particles pass from the membrane but solute particles does not pass. The membrane is
 A osmosis membrane B diffusion membrane C semi-permeable membrane D osmotic pressure
 Question 8
Ethene and ethyne are distinguished by
 A Baeyer’s reagent B Tollen’s reagent C Hager’s reagent D None of these
 Question 9
Structure of electron cloud of acetylene is
 A two cylinderical r-cloud B unsymmetrical C triangular symmetrical D None of the above
 Question 10
HF reacts with CFCL3 in the presence of SbF5 TO give
 A Freon-11 B Freon-12 C Freon-318 D Freon-114
 Question 11
Dilute NaCI is
 A basic B acidic C neutral D strong acidic
 Question 12
Acidic hydrolysis of acetoacetic ester gives
 A acetone B acetic acid C acetalde hyde D methanol
 Question 13
pHof 0.1 Ml M HCI is
 A 1 B 3 C 2 D 4
 Question 14
pH of rain water is
 A 7 B 14 C 0 D 10
 Question 15
Which of the following subshell has ten electron?
 A 3d B 2p C 4s D 3p
 Question 16
Na conducts the electricity because
 A it releases hydrogen on reaction with water B It contains movable electron C It consists hydration energy D it consists combustion energy
 Question 17
All d-black elements are
 A metal B non-metal C Both (a) and (b) D None of these
 Question 18
Sodium reacts with oxygen to form
 A monoxide B peroxide C superoxide D NaOH
 Question 19
 A hexamethylene diamine B thiokol rubber C cis-polyisoprene D trans-polyisoprene
 Question 20
Number of conformational isomers of n-butane are
 A 3 B 4 C 6 D 10
 Question 21
When pH increases from 2 to 4 then concentration
 A Increases 100 times B decreases 100 times C decreases 1000 times D increases 1000 times
 Question 22
Gangue is removed from its ore by
 A concentration B calcination C roasting D smelting
 Question 23
For an exothermic reaction, the favourable Condition to obtain maximum product is
 A low pressure B low concentration of reactants C low temperature D high pressure
 Question 24
When CaO dissolves in water, then heat releases. On increasing temperature its solubility
 A increases B decreases C unchanged D first increases, then decreases
 Question 25
Rate of zero order reaction does not depend on
 A volume B temperature C time D concentration
 Question 26
Which of the following is not a characteristic of colloidal particles ?
 A They pass from filter paper easily. B They are invisible. C They forms heterogeneous mixture. D They pass from parchment paper.
 Question 27
When any 2 g solute dissolves in 50 g water than boiling point comes 100.50C. If Kb = 0.5 then molecular weight will be
 A 4 B 40 C 80 D 100
 Question 28
Sodium lauryl  sulphate is an example of
 A neutral detergent B cationic detergent C anionic detergent D soap detergent
 Question 29
Electricity is
 A mostly positive B always negative C sometime positive and sometime neutral D sometime positive and sometime negative
 Question 30
Acetic acid Is polar in nature but soluble in non-polar solvents because
 A it forms dimer B entropy increases C enthalpy decreases D None of these
 Question 31
The ratio of butadiene and styrene in Buna-S polymer is
 A 1:1 B 1:2 C 3:1 D 1:3
 Question 32
An organic compound is purified by electrolytic purification method. It was proposed by
 A Kolbe B Wurtz C Frenkland D Clemmensen
 Question 33
Name the compound which obtains sufficient energy for combustion on stirring
 A methanol B chloroform C ether D power alcohol
 Question 34
Which of the following smell comes. When some drops of H2SO4 adds in acetate solution?
 A Apple like smell B Banana like smell C Vinegar like smell D White precipitate
 Question 35
Which of the following is the most stable?
 A Methane B Ethane C Butane D Propane
 Question 36
Mixture of camphor and benzoic acid can be Separated by
 A sublimation B extraction with a solvent C chemical method D fractional crystallisation
 Question 37
Which of the following is the example of double salt?
 A Potash alum B Hypo C K4[Fe(CN)6] D Bleaching powder
 Question 38
Which of the following is not an example of molecular crystal ?
 A Hydrogen B Iodine C Ice D Sodium chloride
 Question 39
Chloramphenicol is used for curing in which of the following?
 A Tuberculosis B Typhoid C Headache and fever D Cough
 Question 40
For 2a, 3b, c the Miller indices will be
 A 2,3,1 B 1,2,4 C 3,2,6 D 1,2,3
 Question 41
Hydrogen halide reacts with unsymmetrical alkene to Form
 A a primary alkyl halide B a gem dihalide C a primary or secondary alkyl halide D a secondary or tertiary alkyl halide
 Question 42
For the complete reduction of a molecule of K2Cr2O7 the number of electrons required
 A 3 B 4 C 5 D 6
 Question 43
Which of the following sodium acetate solution will show minimum pH?
 A 0.01M B 0.001 M C 0.0001 M D 0.1 M
 Question 44
Which is suitable for the test of primary amine?
 A Chlorine B Acetyl chloride C Chloroform and alkali D Alkyl chloride
 Question 45
The structure of PCI5 and number of a-bonds in it are
 A square planar,5 B distorted tetrahedral,4 C trigonal bipyramidal,5 D trigonal pyramidal,4
 Question 46
Which compound has octane number 100?
 A 2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane B lso-heptane C n-heptane D n-octane
 Question 47
Which of the following gives haloform reaction?
 A Acetaldehyde B Propionaldehyde C lso-butyraldehyde D All of the above
 Question 48
Electron affinity is the characteristic of an
 A isolated atom B combined atom C gaseous isolated atom in ground state D gaseous isolated atom in excited state
 Question 49
The highest atomic number radioactive element in p-block element is
 A Pb B Te C Rn D Po
 Question 50
Which of the following is obtained from the reaction of formaldehyde with dil. alkali?
 A A polymer B Salt of formic acid C Methyl alcohol D Methyl alcohol and salt of formic acid
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## CETPPMC / CETPPDC Biology Mock Test

Congratulations - you have completed CETPPMC / CETPPDC Biology Mock Test. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
 Question 1
Cyanide resistant pathway is:
 A anaerobic respiration B aerobic respiration C both (a) and (b) D none of the above
 Question 2
Which of the following is used for observing spindle fibres?
 A Dark Held microscope B Phase contrast microscope C Polarisation microscope D Scanning transmission electron microscope
 Question 3
Following technique uses radioactive precursors for observing metabolic activities of macromolecules, is:
 A chromatography B density gradient centrifugation or cell fractionation C autoradiography D electron microscope
 Question 4
Secondary cell wall grows by:
 A deamination B calcicole C apposition D none of these
 Question 5
Agranal chloroplast are found in:
 A Bryophytes B Gymnospenns C Green algae D Angiosperms
 Question 6
Ribosomes that occur exclusively in mitochondria is:
 A 70S B 55S C 30S D 50S
 Question 7
Pseudostratified epithelium is found in:
 A pharynx B trachea C testis D epidermis
 Question 8
Activity of succinic dehydrogenase involves the following in TCA cycle:
 Question 9
The process by which there is inhibition of aerobic respiration by atmospheric O2 is:
 A Pasteur’s effect B Calvin’s effect C Darwin’s effect D None of the above
 Question 10
Chromosomes that determine male sex in Melandrium plant is:
 A V chromosome B X chromosome C XX chromosome D None of the above
 Question 11
Aqueduct of sylvius (iter) connects:
 A 1st and 2nd ventricles B 3rd and 4th ventricles C 2nd and 3rd ventricles D 4th and 1st ventricles
 Question 12
Spores with chloroplast is present in:
 A Selaginella B Equisetum C Puccinia D Rhizopus
 Question 13
Anabaena has an immense potential as a:
 A biofertilizer B food C medicines D sewage disposal
 Question 14
Which of the following gymnosperm has the presence of vessel ?
 A Pinus B Ephedra C Cycas D None of these
 Question 15
Physiological heterospory is seen in:
 A Chlamydomonas B Rhizopus C Selaginella D Lycopodium
 Question 16
Polyembryony is shown by:
 A Selaginella B Pinus C Mangifera D None of these
 Question 17
Wood of Cycos is:
 A pycnoxylic only B polyxylic only C manoxylic and diploxylic D none of the above
 Question 18
The stele found in monocot is:
 A haplostele B atactostele C dictyostele D actinostele
 Question 19
Smallest flower is:
 A Wolffia microspermia B Solvinia C Pistfa D Lemna
 Question 20
 A Ascaris B Ancylostoma C Fasdola D None of these
 Question 21
Integumentary nephridia are also called:
 A enteronephric B exonephric C sometimes enteronephric and sometimes exonephric D both (a) and (b)
 Question 22
Herdmania belongs to which subphyla:
 A Cephalochordata B Hemichordata C Urochordata D Protochordata
 Question 23
Salmon Is:
 Question 24
Which of the following passage way is part of cloaca of vertebrates?
 A Rectum B The reproductive tract C The urinary tract D All of the above
 Question 25
One gene one enzyme hypothesis was given by:
 A Jacob and Monod B McClintock C Meselson and Stahl D Beadle and Tatum
 Question 26
Ribosome mainly has:
 A DNA B RNA C carbohydrate D none of these
 Question 27
Hybrid vigour is due to:
 A heterosis B epistasis C complementary genes D supplementary genes
 Question 28
The phenotypic ratio obtained in quantitative inheritance of a dihybrid cross is:
 A 1:2:1 B 1:4:6:4: 1 C 1:6:15:20:15:6:1 D 9:3:3:1
 Question 29
In Limnoea shell coiling is due to:
 A cytoplasmic inheritance B nuclear inheritance C recessive inheritance D none of the above
 Question 30
Binomial nomenclature was given by:
 A Aristotle B Hutchinson C Julian Huxley D Linnaeus
 Question 31
Vernalisation is response due to:
 A high temperature B optimum temperature C low temperature D none of the above
 Question 32
The number of chromosomes in Klinefelter’s syndrome is:
 A 47(44+XXY) B 47(44+ XXX) C 47 [46 + 1 (chromosome 21)] D none of the above
 Question 33
Oblique ovary is found in family:
 A Brassicaceae B Compositae C Leguminosae D Solanaceae
 Question 34
Codes of m-RNA and proteins are:
 A coplanar B colinear C nonlinear D irregular
 Question 35
Abnormal gene is replaced by normal gene through:
 A gene therapy B medicines C cloning D radiation
 Question 36
Smallest part of DNA, which takes part in crossing over is called:
 A gene B allele C recon D none of these
 Question 37
Gibberellin was first reported from:
 A algae B fungus C bacteria D bryophyte
 Question 38
Maximum photosynthetic activity takes place in:
 A red light B orange light C green light D yellow light
 Question 39
Animals devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs are belong to phylum:
 A Echinodermata B Platyhelminthes C Porifera D Mollusca
 Question 40
Ginger multiplies vegetatively by:
 A tuber B corm C sucker D rhizome
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