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CPMEE Mock Test – Question Answers – Uttarakhand Pre Medical Entrance

CPMEE Mock Test:  Common Pre Medical Entrance Examination Uttarakhand ACEE CPMEE Online Mock Test:   ACEE CPMEE Questions Answers for medical entrance exams subjects : Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology). This mock test having 25 questions in each subjects, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this Uttarakhand CPMEE test question details at the end of the quiz.

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CPMEE Mock Test – Question Answers

CPMEE 2017 by ACEE  questions answers are applicable for any kind of UG medical entrance exam in India. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers CPMEE critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking Medical level exam. For more resources you can go through  ACEE CPMEE Previous Year Question Papers Answers.



Uttarakhand CPMEE Online Mock Test = Biology

Congratulations - you have completed Uttarakhand CPMEE Online Mock Test = Biology .You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The main function of lysosome is:
A
sexual reproduction
B
extracellular digestion
C
intracellular digestion
D
both ‘b’and ‘c’
Question 2
Which of the following maintains continuity  between the water and lipid phases inside  and outside the cells?
A
Cell wall
B
Lecithin
C
Cell vacuole
D
Cell membrane of woody plants
Question 3
The method of classification, called cladistics, is based on:
A
natural system
B
mutation theory
C
artificial system
D
evolutionary history
Question 4
In many bacteria, the cell membrane becomes invaginated and folded to form:
A
pill
B
cristae
C
fimbriae
D
mesosomes
Question 5
Lomasomes are found in:
A
algal cell
B
fungal cell
C
bacterial cell
D
cyanobacterial cell
Question 6
Zygote of Spirogyra produces four haploid nuclei, in which:
A
one is functional
B
two are functional
C
three are functional
D
all are functional
Question 7
Which of the following part of Funaria, sporophyte is involved in the dispersal of spores?
A
Calyptra
B
Operculum
C
Peristome
D
Annulus
Question 8
In Selaginelln, the adaxial outgrowth, from the base of leaf, is called:
A
ligule
B
velum
C
rhizophore
D
glossopodium
Question 9
In Pinus, the third tier of embryonal cells from below is known as:
A
rosette tier
B
embryonal tier
C
suspensor tier
D
free-nuclear tier
Question 10
Most of the petrocrops belongs to family:
A
Malvaceae
B
Rutaceae
C
Leguminosae
D
Euphorbiaceae
Question 11
Amia belongs to family:
A
Labiatae
B
Fabaceae
C
Solanaceae
D
Euphorbiaceae
Question 12
Tuberous roots are found in:
A
Beta viligaris
B
Dnucus carota
C
Iponioea ba to tas
D
Raphanus sativus
Question 13
Vela men is found in:
A
Vanda
B
Rosa
C
Viscum
D
Sontlum
Question 14
How many tissue systems are suggested by Sachs:
A
two
B
three
C
four
D
five
Question 15
The function of vessel is:
A
conduction of food
B
conduction of water & minerals
C
to help in transpiration
D
to help in respiration
Question 16
When vegetative cells of sporophyte form an  embryo it is called:
A
Apospory
B
Apogamy
C
Apomixis
D
Adventive polyembryony
Question 17
Which of the following is used for ripening of fruits?
A
Auxin
B
ABA
C
Ethylene gas
D
Cytokinin
Question 18
Induction of flowering in plants by low temperature treatment is called
A
Vernalization
B
Photoperiodism
C
Cryobiology
D
Chilozology
Question 19
The enzyme restriction endonucleases:
A
cuts single strand of DNA
B
joins the strands of DNA
C
cuts double strand of DNA
D
cuts RNA strand
Question 20
Kufri Pukhraj is a hybrid clone of:
A
Rice
B
Potato
C
Grape
D
Wheat
Question 21
Aril is the edible part of:
A
Apple
B
Grapes
C
Orange
D
Litchi
Question 22
Pyruvic acid is formed during:
A
Krebs cycle
B
Glycolysis
C
Omithine cycle
D
Calvin cycle
Question 23
Phagocytosis was observed first time by:
A
Huxley
B
Strassburger
C
Matchnikoff
D
Haeckel
Question 24
Poisonous sea-snakes possess a
A
compressed tail
B
printed tail
C
depressed tail
D
conical tail
Question 25
When seed germinates, while the fruit is attached to parent plant, it is called:
A
apomixes
B
vivipary
C
parthenocarpy
D
parthenogenesis
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Uttarakhand CPMEE Online Mock Test = Chemistry

Congratulations - you have completed Uttarakhand CPMEE Online Mock Test = Chemistry.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The radius of second Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is
A
0.053 nm
B
0.1Ub nm
C
0.2116 nm
D
0.4256 nm
Question 2
Kinetic energy of one mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is
A
3.48 kJ
B
3.74 kJ
C
37.4 kJ
D
34 kJ
Question 3
The least count of an instrument is 0.01 cm. Taking all precautions, the most possible error in the measurement can he:
A
0.005 cm
B
0.01 cm
C
0.0001 cm
D
0.1 cm
Question 4
The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by
A
Henry Becquerrel
B
Madam Curie
C
P. Curie
D
Rutherford.
Question 5
Ethyl chloride is converted into diethyl ether by
A
Perkins reaction
B
Grignard reagent
C
Wurtz reaction
D
Williamson’s synthesis
Question 6
The maximum energy is possessed by an electron, when it is present :
A
in nucleus
B
in ground energy state
C
in first excited state
D
at infinite distance from the nucleus
Question 7
A gas has a vapour density 11.2. The volume occupied by I gm of gas at NTP’ is
A
1 litre
B
11.2 litre
C
22.4 litre
D
unpredictable
Question 8
Particle nature of electron was experintently demonstrated by
A
Max Bon
B
J.J. Thomson
C
de Broglie
D
Schrondinger
Question 9
Which of the following is a magic number?
A
10
B
16
C
55
D
50
Question 10
The mass of an object changes from 0.2 g to 0.025 g in 1500 years. The half life of the object is
A
500 yrs
B
600yrs
C
600 yrs
D
950 yrs
Question 11
Which of the following lanthanide is commonly used ?
A
Lanthanum
B
Nobelium
C
Thorium
D
Cerium
Question 12
Which of the following waste materials can he used for producing bio-gas ?
A
Thermocoal
B
Glass bottle
C
Tin Cans
D
Paper scrap
Question 13
The hardness of water is estimated by
A
EDTA method
B
Titrimetric method
C
Conductivity method
D
Distillation method
Question 14
Beilstcin test is used for the detection of
A
N
B
S
C
Cl
D
Na
Question 15
In a period the elements are arrangcd in sequence of
A
increasing charge on the nucleus
B
decreasing charge on the nucleus
C
equal charge on the nucleus
D
constant charge on the nucleus
Question 16
The most favourable condition for the manufacture of NH3 is
A
high temperature and high pressure
B
low temperature and low pressure
C
high temperature and low pressure
D
low temperature and high pressure
Question 17
The most readily absorpped gas on activated charcoal is:
A
sulphur dioxide
B
nitrogen
C
hydrogen
D
oxygen
Question 18
The reaction of alkyl halide and sodium metal in presence of dry ether is known as:
A
Wurtz’s reaction
B
Clemmensen reaction
C
Cannizzaro’s reaction
D
Kolbe’s reaction
Question 19
The conversion of benzaldehyde into benzyl alcohol takes place by:
A
Fitting reaction
B
Wurtz fitting reaction
C
Wtirtz reaction
D
Cannizzaro’s reaction
Question 20
The compound which does not have carboxyl group is:
A
benzoic acid
B
picric acid
C
methanoic acid
D
ethanoic acid
Question 21
A liquid which decompose at its normal pressure can be purified by:
A
steam distillation
B
sublimation
C
fractional distillation
D
vacuum distillation
Question 22
Which is not effected by temperature?
A
Molality
B
Molarity
C
Normality
D
Formality
Question 23
If the initial concentration of reactants in certain reaction is doubled, the half life period of the reaction doubles, the order Of reaction is :
A
3rd
B
1st
C
2nd
D
Zero
Question 24
A gas has a vapour density 11.2. The volume occupies by 1 g of the gas at NTP is:
A
1L.
B
11.2L
C
22.4L
D
4L
Question 25
The highest first ionisation potential is of
A
carbon
B
boron
C
oxygen
D
nitrogen
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Uttarakhand CPMEE Online Mock Test = Physics

Congratulations - you have completed Uttarakhand CPMEE Online Mock Test = Physics .You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
A force of 10 N acts on a body of mass 20 kg. for 10 seconds. The change in its momentum is:
A
50 kg-m/s
B
100 kg-m/s
C
300 kg-m/s
D
1000 kg-m/s
Question 2
If an iron ball and a wooden ball of the same radius are released from a height h in vacuum, then time taken by both of them, to reach the ground will be:
A
zero
B
unequal
C
roughly equal
D
exactly equal
Question 3
A ball of mass 0.25 kg attached to the ends of a string of length 1.96 m is rotating in a horizontal circle. The string will break, if tension is more than 25 N. What is the maximum velocity with which the ball can be rotated?
A
3 m/s
B
5 m/s
C
9 m/s
D
14 m/s
Question 4
In uniform circular motion, the factor that remains constant is
A
acceleration
B
momentum
C
kinetic energy
D
linear velocity
Question 5
A projectile is fired at 300 with momentum p. Neglecting friction, the change in kinetic energy, when it returns back to the ground, will be:
A
zero
B
30%
C
60%
D
100%
Question 6
If a car at rest accelerates uniformly and attains a speed of 72 km/hr in 10 s, then it covers a distance of:
A
50m
B
l00m
C
200m
D
400m
Question 7
We wish to see inside an atom. Assuming the atom to have a diameter of 100 pm, this means that one must be able to resolve a width of say 10 pm. If an electron microscope is used, the minimum electron energy required is about:
A
15 keV
B
1.5 keV
C
150 keV
D
1.5 MeV
Question 8
A particle is moving under the influence of a force which is fixed in magnitude and acting at an angle ‘9’ in the direction of motion. The path described by the particle is:
A
a circle
B
an ellipse
C
a parabola
D
a straight line
Question 9
If the rotational speed of earth is increased then weight of a body at the equator:
A
increases
B
decreases
C
becomes double
D
does not change
Question 10
The amplitude of an oscillating simple pendulum is 10 cm and its time period is 4 s. Its speed after 1 s when it passes through its equilibrium position is:
A
zero
B
2,0 m/s
C
0.3 m/s
D
0.4 m/s
Question 11
A simple second pendulum is mounted in a rocket. Its time period will decrease when the rocket is:
A
moving up with uniform velocity
B
moving up with uniform acceleration
C
moving down with uniform acceleration
D
moving around the earth in geostationary orbit
Question 12
A child swinging on a swing in a sitting position, stands up, then the time period of the swing will:
A
increase
B
decrease
C
remain the same
D
increase if the child is long and
Question 13
decrease if the child is short The phenomena arising due to the superposition of waves is/are:
A
beats
B
stationary waves
C
Lissajous figures
D
all of these
Question 14
Real gases obey ideal gas laws more closely at:
A
low pressure and low temperature
B
low pressure and high temperature
C
high pressure and low temperature
D
high pressure and high temperature
Question 15
Carnot engine cannot give 100% efficiency, because we cannot:
A
eleminate friction
B
find ideal sources
C
prevent radiation
D
reach absolute zero temperature
Question 16
Kinetic energy of an electron in the first Bohr’s orbit of the hydrogen atom is:
A
-6.5eV
B
+13.6eV
C
-29.6 eV
D
-13.6 eV
Question 17
If the refractive angles of the prisms made of crown glass are 10° and 20° respectively. Then the ratio of their colour deviation power will be
A
4:1
B
3:1
C
2:1
D
1:1
Question 18
If a long hollow copper pipe carries a current then the produced magnetic field will be:
A
both inside and outside the pipe
B
neither inside and nor outside pipe
C
inside the pipe only
D
outside the pipe only
Question 19
The bodies moving toward each other collide and move away in opposite direction. This is same as rise in temperature of bodies is due to apart of kinetic energy converted into:
A
electrical energy
B
nuclear energy
C
mechanical energy
D
heat energy
Question 20
A particle executes S.H.M. of amplitude Then the distance from the initial position, if its kinetic energy is equal to its potential energy:
A
0.71 A
B
1.42 A
C
0.375 A
D
0.91. A
Question 21
The two electric bulbs have 40 watt and 60w rating at 220V. Then the ratio of their resistance will be:
A
1:4
B
3:2
C
4:3
D
2:3
Question 22
If the earth losses its gravity then for body:
A
weight becomes zero but not mass
B
mass becomes zero but not the weight
C
both mass and weight become zero
D
neither mass nor weight become zero
Question 23
In a semiconductor separation between conduction and valence band is of the order of:
A
0 eV
B
l eV
C
10 eV
D
50 eV
Question 24
If an electron jumps from 1st orbit to Ilird orbit, then it will:
A
not gain energy
B
absorb energy
C
release energy
D
none of these
Question 25
A person whose nearest distance of distinct vision is 60 cm uses a reading lens of 15 cm focal length. Then the magnification will be:
A
5
B
3
C
2
D
1
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