FDDI AIST 2022 Admission Test

FDDI AIST 2022 Admission Test – Footwear Design & Development Institute Test 2022 for the admission in FDDI Campus at NOIDA, Fursatganj, Chennai, Kolkata, Chhindwara, Rohtak, Jodhpur & Guna.

FDDI AIST 2022 All India Selection test (AIST)

FDDI AIST 2022 Admission Test

FDDI Admission 2022

  • Candidates those are seeking admission in the Footwear Design & Development Institute (FDDI) conducts they have to appear in All India Selection test (AIST) entrance exam for admission to its PG and UG Programmes at the following campuses.
  • FDDI Campuses:– Noida, Kolkata, Chennai, Rohtak, Jodhpur, Fursatganj, Chhindwara and Guna.

FDDI AIST 2022 Online Application Form

  • The FDDI AIST Information  Brochure  will  be  available  ONLINE on  the  websites www.fddiindia.com.
  • Candidates are advised to read carefully FDDI AIST 2022 information brochure, check their eligibility and applicable reservation category etc. before filling and submitting the application.

FDDI AIST 2022 Exam Date

  • Footwear Design & Development Institute (FDDI) conducts All India Selection Test (AIST) entrance exam once in every year in the month of June, last year it was held on 12th June 2015 to 14th June 2015.

Course Offered at FDDI

Master Degree Programmes – 2 Years

  • MBA (Retail & Fashion Merchandise)
  • MBA (Footwear Design & Production)
  • M. Des. (Creative Design & CAD/CAM)

Bachelor Degree Programmes – 4 Years

  • B.Des (Footwear Design & Production)
  • B.Des. (Fashion Leather Accessory Design)
  • B.Des. (Fashion Designing)
  • B.Des. (Retail & Fashion Merchandise)

Integrated Programmes – 5 Years

  • Business & Entrepreneurship

FDDI Eligibility Criteria

  • PG Programmes – Graduation (10+2+3) in any discipline (candidates appearing in final year may also apply)
  • UG Programmes –10+2 / Intermediate (candidates appearing in 10+2 may also apply)
  • Integrated Programme – 10+2 / Intermediate (candidates appearing in 10+2 may also apply)
  • Eligible candidates will have to undergo an All India Selection test (AIST) that consists of Online test (Math, English, reasoning/General science & GK)

FDDI AIST Exam Pattern & Syllabus

  • The Computer Based Test (CBT) examination will be conducted at the specified centres.
  • The duration of FDDI entrance test will be of 02:30 minutes (Two and half hours).
  • The question would be conducted in English & Hindi languages.
  • There would be a total of 150 objective type i.e. multiple choice questions.
  • Each question would carry 1 mark. There is NO negative marking.

Exam Pattern For Post Graduate 

Section

Description

 Times Suggested
(In minutes)		 Number of Questions
Section A Quantitative Aptitude & Reasoning

45

45
Section B English

45

45
Section C General Awareness

30

30
Section D Business Aptitude

30

30

Total  

150

150

EXAM PATTERN for underGraduate 

Section

Description



 Times Suggested (In minutes) Number of Questions
Section A Mathematics

45

45
Section B General Science

30

30
Section C English

45

45
Section D General Awareness

30

30

Total  

150

150

Old Question Papers

FDDI AIST Previous Year Question Papers

  • Here you can find all of the FDDI AIST previous year question papers answers are free of cost students can download these papers for Designing Entrance 2022  preparation. This Year on 2015 FDDI AIST written test conducted , the paper is not available with us. Any Candidates who has Last 10 to 20 Years previous solution can share with us.
  • Currently previous papers is not available but you can check the model papers and mock test papers below.

FDDI AIST Online Mock Test

Congratulations - you have completed FDDI AIST Online Mock Test. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Directions: Study the passages below and answer the questions that follow each passage.                                                PASSAGE-I Having investigated the nature of the relationship between price and trading volume for 50 Indian stocks, our findings indicate evidence of positive contemporaneous correlation between price changes and trading volume in Indian stock markets. All the stocks, except Reliance Power, show asymmetric behaviour, which is in line with the research findings. Investigation of dynamic relationship between returns and trading volume shows very interesting results. We find evidence that in the Indian market, past returns cause trading volume, which can be easily conceived in an emerging market where the state of development of the market possibly does not allow instantaneous information dissemination. These results are further supported by the variance decomposition. However, in most cases the relationship lacks economic significance even though it is statistically significant. The results of impulse response analysis indicate that both returns and volume are mostly affected by their own lag and that volume is more autoregressive than returns, that is, any shock in either returns or volume does not affect the return series beyond one lag. In case of unconditional volatility and trading volume, we find a positive contemporaneous relationship between trading volume and unconditional volatility. According to the passage, the research findings show 1. positive contemporaneous relationship between trading volume and volatility 2. Reliance Power confirms the general trend 3. information is not disseminated instantaneously in the stock market  
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
2 and 3
Question 2
It can be inferred from the passage that  
A
the trading volume does not depend on the past returns
B
the trading volume largely depends on the past returns
C
the trading volume has no positive correlation with volatility
D
the trading volume depends on the variance decomposition
Question 3
According to the passage, subjects that are discussed do not include  
A
trends in returns vis-à-vis volatility
B
stock market losses during recession
C
information dissemination being slow within the market
D
results of the research have more of statistical significance than economic
Question 4
According to the passage, which one of the following inferences is false?  
A
Any shock in either returns or volume affects the return series beyond one lag
B
In case of unconditional volatility and trading volume, there exists a positive contemporaneous relationship between trading volume and unconditional volatility
C
Both returns and volume are mostly affected by their own lag
D
The state of development of the market possibly does not allow instantaneous information dissemination
Question 5
                                                  PASSAGE – II   There’s an old journalistic axiom that bad news sells. That is reflected every day on our television screens and newspaper headlines. From the lingering impact of the global economic meltdown to acts of terrorism, new pandemics and lately, natural disasters, the bad news seems unending. Yet, in every depressing story there is always a silver lining, an act of courage, independence and enterprise that shows the resilience of the human spirit. Nothing faces more daunting odds than the crucial area of infrastructure. India is the fifth-largest producer of electricity in the world. It has the second-largest road network in the world. The second-largest rail network under a single management, and a civil aviation market that will touch 100 million passengers by next year. It also has the third-largest number of telephone subscribers the world over. Yet the Indian infrastructure story is usually one of shortages, blockages and leakages. Whether it is energy or urban infrastructure, roads or ports, India has unfortunately rarely been known for its efficiency. There have been a few shining examples that have been written about but there are others lesser known but equally important for the role they have played in the infrastructure arena. There are challenges, of course, and we have picked an array of experts to address them. Infrastructure, as everyone knows, will be the key challenge for India’s growth story and John F. Kennedy’s famous words come to mind: ‘American roads are not good because America is rich, but America is rich because American roads are good’. Hopefully, the same will happen in India too. As per the passage,  
A
infrastructure is not all that relevant for development of a country
B
India does not have the required know how to build up the infrastructure
C
infrastructure is relevant for development
D
infrastructure is most essential for development
Question 6
In the field of infrastructure, India  
A
has shown remarkable progress
B
is not doing satisfactorily
C
has shown adequate progress
D
does not have experts to deal with various problems
Question 7
According to the passage,  
A
people love to read good news
B
people do not prefer good news
C
bad news generally spreads fast
D
no one wants to hear bad news
Question 8
As per the passage, India  
A
is capable of dealing with problems of building required infrastructure
B
may not be able to build its infrastructure
C
is well known for its efficiency in dealing with problems of infrastructure
D
will continue to struggle in dealing with problems of building the required infrastructure
Question 9
                                               PASSAGE – II Power and possession have been central pursuits of modern civilization for a long time. They blocked out or distorted other features of the western renaissance (revival) which promised so much for humanity. But people have been and are still being taught to prize are money, success, control over the lives of others, acquisition of more and more objects. Modern social, political, and economic systems, whether capitalist, fascist or communist, reject in their working the basic principle that the free and creative unfoldment of every man, woman and child is the true measure of the worth of any society. Such infoldment requires understanding and imagination, integrity and compassion, co-operation among people and harmony between the human species and the rest of nature. Acquisitiveness and the pursuit of power have made the modern man an aggressor against everything that is non-human, an exploiter and oppressor of those who are poor, meek and unorganized, a pathological type which hates and distrusts the world and suffers from both acute loneliness and false pride. The need for a new renaissance is deeply felt by those sensitive and conscientious men and women who not only perceive the dimensions of the crisis of our but who also realize that only through conscious and cooperative human effort may this crisis be met and probably even overcome. The author appears to be advocating which of the following approaches to be adopted by the society?  
A
Capitalistic
B
Communist
C
Humanistic
D
Authoritarian
Question 10
Which of the following best describes the behaviour of modern man?  
A
Imaginative and sympathetic
B
Cruel and greedy
C
Conscientious and cooperative
D
Perceptive and creative
Question 11
The author hopes that the present crisis can be solved by  
A
devoted individual efforts
B
different political systems
C
collective human efforts
D
spiritually developed individuals
Question 12
Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘central’ as used in the passage?  
A
Lateral
B
Inadequate
C
Peripheral
D
Major
Question 13
                                                 PASSAGE – IV The history of literature really began long before man learned to write. Dancing was the earliest of the arts. Man danced for joy round his primitive camp fire after the defeat and slaughter of his enemy. He yelled and shouted as he danced and gradually the yells and shouts became coherent and caught the measure of the dance and thus the first war song was sung. As the idea of God, developed prayers were framed. The songs and prayers became traditional and were repeated from one generation to another, each generation adding something of its own. As man slowly grew more civilized, he was compelled to invent some method of writing by three urgent necessities. There were certain things that it was dangerous to forget and which, therefore, had to be recorded. It was often necessary to communicate with persons who were some distance away and it was necessary to protect one’s property by making tools, cattle and so on, in some distinctive manner. So man taught himself to write and having learned to write purely for utilitarian reasons he used this new method for preserving his war songs and his prayers. Of course, among these ancient people, there were only a very few individuals who learned to write, and only a few could read what was written. As for the war songs and prayers, each generation  
A
added something of its own to the stock
B
blindly repeated the songs and prayers
C
composed its own songs and prayers
D
repeated what has handed down to it
Question 14
The first war-song  
A
was inspired by God
B
developed spontaneously
C
was a song traditionally handed down
D
was composed by leading dancers
Question 15
The war song evolved out of  
A
creative inspiration
B
literature
C
artistic urge
D
yelling and shouting
Question 16
Man invented writing because he wanted to  
A
be artistic
B
write war song
C
write literature
D
record and communicate
Question 17
                                              PASSAGE – V Economists, ethicists and business sages persuade us that honesty is the best policy, but their evidence is weak. We hoped to find data that would support their theories and thus, perhaps encourage higher standards of business behaviour. To our surprise, our pet theories failed to stand up. Treachery, we found, can pay. There is no compelling economic reason to tell the truth or keep one’s word punishment for the treacherous in the real world is neither swift nor sure. Honesty is, in fact, primarily a moral choice. Business people do tell themselves that, in the long run, they will do well by doing good. But there is little factual or logical basis for this conviction. Without values, without a basic preference for right over wrong, trust based on such self-delusion would crumble in the face of temptation. Most of us choose virtue because we want to believe in ourselves and have others’ respect and belief in us. And for this, we should be happy. We can be proud of a system in which people are honest because they want to be, not because they have to be. Materially, too, trust based on morality provides great advantages. It allows us to join in great and exciting enterprises that we could never undertake if we relied on economic incentives alone. Economists tell us that trust is enforced in the market place through retaliation of reputation. If you violate a trust, your victim is apt to seek revenge and others are likely to stop doing business with you, at least under favourable terms. A man or woman with a reputation for fair dealing will prosper. Therefore, profit maximizers are honest. This sounds plausible enough until you look for concrete examples. Cases that apparently demonstrate the awful consequences of trust turn out to be few and weak, while evidence that treachery can pay seems compelling. What did the author find out about the theory that honestly is the best policy?  
A
It is a useless theory
B
It is correct on many occasions
C
It is correct for all businessmen
D
It is correct only occasionally
Question 18
What do economists and ethicists want us to believe?  
A
Businessmen are honest only at times
B
Businessmen should be honest at all times
C
Businessmen cannot be honest at all times
D
Businessmen turn dishonest at times
Question 19
Which of the following is false according to the passage?  
A
People are generally honest because it pays in the long run
B
Virtuous behaviour earns the self respect of others
C
Economists believe that all businessmen are dishonest
D
Generally people are honest to earn self-respect
Question 20
Why do businessmen, according to economists, remain honest, because dishonest businessmen  
A
are flogged in the market place
B
are always prosecuted
C
can make more money
D
cannot stay in business for long
Question 21
Find the sum of the cubes of first 10 natural numbers.  
A
3010
B
3040
C
3025
D
3020
Question 22
Three natural numbers are in the ratio 2:3:4. If the sum of squares of these numbers is 116, then determine the numbers.  
A
2, 3, 4
B
4, 6, 8
C
6, 9, 12
D
8, 12, 16
Question 23
HCF of 150 and 210 is 30, then the HCF of 210 and 360 will be  
A
60
B
30
C
90
D
70
Question 24
If a piece of rod is 3000 m and we have to supply some lamp posts. One post is at each end and distance between two consecutive lamp posts is 75 m. Find the number of posts required.  
A
41
B
39
C
40
D
36
Question 25
If P is ‘a’ % more than Q and Q is ‘b’ % less than P, then  
A
1/a – 1/b = 100
B
1/a – 1/b = 1/100
C
1/a + 1/b = 100
D
1/b – 1/a = 1/100
Question 26
On what sum of money lent out at 9% per annum simple interest for 6 years does the simple interest amount to Rs. 810?  
A
Rs. 1,500
B
Rs. 1,000
C
Rs. 1,200
D
Rs. 1,800
Question 27
Two equal sums of money were lent at simple interest at 10% per annum for 4 yrs. and 5 yrs. respectively. If the difference in interests for two periods was Rs. 220, then each sum is  
A
Rs. 880
B
Rs. 1,100
C
Rs. 2,200
D
Rs. 1,640
Question 28
A sum of money amounts to Rs. 6272 in 2 yrs and Rs 7024.64 in 3 yrs. The rate of interest per annum is  
A
8% per annum
B
12% per annum
C
6% per annum
D
10% per annum
Question 29
Effective annual rate of interest, corresponding to a nominal rate of 4% per annum payable half-yearly is  
A
4.04% per annum
B
4.15% per annum
C
4.18% per annum
D
4.10% per annum
Question 30
A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days, B and C can do it in 15 days and C and A can do the same work in 20 days. Find the number of days in which A alone can do the same work.  
A
20 days
B
30 days
C
45 days
D
60 days
Question 31
A supplies 20 men who work for 8 h a day for 6 days. B supplies 15 men working at 9 h a day for 7 days and C supplies 10 men working 6 h a day for 8 days to do a certain work. If Rs. 636 is paid for all the men, what is C’s share?  
A
Rs. 128
B
Rs. 136
C
Rs. 148
D
Rs. 154
Question 32
The fourth proportional to 5, 6 and 150, is  
A
30
B
125
C
180
D
120
Question 33
If a:b = 5:9, b:c = 6:11, find a:b:c.  
A
11:18:33
B
10:19:34
C
11:19:34
D
10:18:33
Question 34
If all the members of a team are juniors or seniors and if the ratio of juniors to seniors in the team is 3:5. What per cent of the team members constitute the seniors?  
A
37.5%
B
62.5%
C
65.2%
D
35.7%
Question 35
A man is walking at a speed of 10 km/h. After every kilometre he takes rest for 5 min. How much time will he take to cover a distance of 5 km?  
A
20 min
B
30 min
C
40 min
D
50 min
Question 36
A train 150 m long is running at 40 km/h. In what time will it pass a man running at 4 km/h in the same direction in which the train is going?  
A
16 sec
B
12 sec
C
15 sec
D
18 sec
Question 37
What must be the side of an equilateral triangle so that its area may be equal that of a square of which the diagonal is 15 metre?  
A
16.11 m
B
18 m
C
21.11 m
D
10.22 m
Question 38
The angle of elevation of the top of a tower 30 m high, from two points on the level ground on its opposite sides are 450 and 600. What is the distance between the two points?  
A
47.32 m
B
55.32 m
C
40.21 m
D
None of these
Question 39
From the vertex of an obtuse angle, perpendiculars are drawn to the arms of the angle. If the angle between the above perpendiculars is 350, then what is the measure of the obtuse angle?  
A
145 degree
B
135 degree
C
160 degree
D
165 degree
Question 40
Directions (Qs. 40 and 41): Read the following information to answer these questions. Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle facing the centre. B is sitting between G and D. H is third to the left of B and second to the right of A. C is sitting between A & G and B & E are not sitting opposite to each other. Who is third to the left of D?  
A
F
B
E
C
A
D
None of these
Question 41
Which of the following statements is not correct?  
A
D and A are sitting opposite to each other
B
C is third to the right of D
C
E is sitting between F and D
D
A is sitting between C and F
Question 42
Directions (Qs. 42 and 43): Study the sequence and replace the “?” mark from the given alternatives. 2, 3, 4, 9, 3, 4, 5, 12, 4, 5, 6, 15, 5, “?”, 7, 18  
A
8
B
7
C
6
D
9
Question 43
ab“?”d“?”bc“?”a“?”c“?”ab“?”d  
A
cadbdc
B
cabbcd
C
abbcdd
D
caddbc
Question 44
Asha walks 3 km Southward and then turns right and walks 2 km. She again turns right and walks 3 km and turns towards her left and starts walking straight. In which direction is she walking now?  
A
East
B
North
C
South
D
West
Question 45
Pointing towards a boy Veena said “He is the son of only son of my grandfather”. How is that boy related to Veena?  
A
Uncle
B
Brother
C
Cousin
D
Data inadequate
Question 46
Kamal told Vimal, “Yesterday I defeated the only brother of the daughter of my grandmother.” Whom did Kamal defeat?  
A
Father
B
Son
C
Brother
D
Father in law
Question 47
Directions (Qs. 47 and 48): In each of these questions, two pairs of numbers are given but one number in the second pair is missing. Identify the relationship between the two numbers in the first pair and find the missing number in the second pair such that the numbers in second pair also follow the same relationship. 130 : 5 :: 1010 : ?  
A
100
B
1
C
10
D
1000
Question 48
16 : 240 :: 11 : ?  
A
100
B
90
C
110
D
80
Question 49
Directions (Qs. 49-54): Each question consists of a problem followed by two statements numbered as I and II. Decide whether the data in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Mark answer as A. if statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question B. if statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question C. if both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient D. if statements I and II together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question How many ewes (female sheep) in a flock of 50 sheep are black? I. There are 10 rams (male sheep) in the flock II. Forty per cent of the animals are black  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 50
If a and b are both positive, what per cent of b is a? I. a = 3/11 II. b/a = 20  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 51
What is the ratio of male to female officers in the police force in town T? I. The number of female officers is 250 less than half the number of male officers. II. The number of female officers is 1/7 the number of male officers.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 52
What is the value of n? I. 3n + 2m = 18 II. n – m = 2n – (4 + m)  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 53
If x and y are both positive integers, how much greater is x than y? I. x + y = 20 II. x = y2  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 54
Is w an integer? I. 3w is an odd number. II. 2w is an even number.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 55
Directions (Qs. 55 and 56): Each of these questions consists of a statement followed by two arguments numbered as I and II. Decide which of the arguments is ‘strong’ or ‘not strong’ from the statement. Mark answer as A. if only argument I is strong. B. if only argument II is strong. C. if neither argument I nor II is strong. D. if both arguments I and II are strong. Statement: Should school education be made free in India? Arguments: I. Yes, this is the only way to improve the level of literacy. II. No, it will add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 56
Statement: Should there be complete ban on manufacture of fire-crackers in India? Arguments: I. No, this will make thousands of workers Jobless. II. Yes, the fire-cracker manufactures use child labour to a large extent.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 57
“Consumer Electronic Imaging Fair 2013” formally known as “Photo Fair” was organized during January 2013 at  
A
Kolkata
B
Chennai
C
Delhi
D
Mumbai
Question 58
Who is the brand ambassador of NOKIA Phones in India?  
A
Shah Rukh Khan
B
Aamir Khan
C
Abhishek Bachchan
D
M S Dhoni
Question 59
Which are the rivers that originate from the Mansarovar region?  
A
Narmada, Tapti, Beas
B
Indus, Sutlej, Brahmaputra
C
Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery
D
Ganges, Yamuna, Hooghly
Question 60
Where are the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee located?  
A
Italy
B
Switzerland
C
Belgium
D
France
Question 61
What is common about famous personalities Manish Malhotra, J.J. Valya and Rohit Bal?  
A
Male Modelling
B
Film Direction
C
Novel Writing
D
Fashion Designing
Question 62
Which Indian State is the leading Cotton producer?  
A
Gujarat
B
Maharashtra
C
Andhra Pradesh
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 63
Mahindra & Mahindra has acquired the manufacturing of _________ by naming its next generation electric car as the Mahindra e2o that is ‘E-too-oh’.  
A
Reva
B
Punto
C
Nano
D
Bolero
Question 64
World’s largest roller coaster named ‘Ferrari World’ is located in  
A
Tokyo
B
Abu Dhabi
C
Mumbai
D
Beijing
Question 65
Who won the men’s national table tennis championship in January 2013 held in Raipur?  
A
Soumyajit Ghosh
B
Sharat Kamal
C
Shourabh Chakraborty
D
G. Jalyan
Question 66
Who won the reality TV show “Bigg Boss Season 6” in January 2013 hosted by actor Salman Khan?  
A
Sana Khan
B
Urvashi Dholakia
C
Imam Siddique
D
Niketan Madhok
Question 67
‘Canterbury’, the premium Indian brand of woolen cardigans and pullovers is from the house of  
A
Monte-Carlo
B
Woodland
C
Digjam
D
OCM
Question 68
Which state has the traditional dress of men known as “Sola or Fotua” and “Eri-Chaddar”?  
A
Assam
B
Tripura
C
Nagaland
D
Meghalaya
Question 69
Which one of the following cosmetic companies has launched Colour Riche Nail Collection “Le nail Art”?  
A
Lakme
B
L’ Oreal
C
Garnier
D
Clinique
Question 70
The ‘more mega store’, retail chain belongs to which Indian Industry?  
A
Reliance Industry
B
Bharti Enterprises
C
Aditya Birla Group
D
None of these
Question 71
Who is the brand ambassador of the Hockey India League (HIL) 2013?  
A
Pragat Singh
B
Dhanraj Pillai
C
Navjot Singh Sidhu
D
Virat Kohli
Question 72
‘Van Heusen’ is a leading International brand of  
A
formal wear
B
fashion accessories
C
jewellery
D
None of these
Question 73
‘Sonata’, ‘Ajanta’ and ‘Maxima’ are the well-known Indian brands of  
A
jewellery
B
watches
C
cosmetics
D
home furnishing
Question 74
Lionel Messi, the winner of four FIFA-Ballion d’ Or and world player of the year belongs to  
A
Brazil
B
Spain
C
Argentina
D
Germany
Question 75
Who has been crowned ‘Miss Earth’ Beauty Pageant at the 12th edition held in November 2012?  
A
Stephany Stetanowitz
B
Tereza Fajksova
C
Osmariel Villalobos
D
Camila Brant
Question 76
FDI stands for  
A
Fashion Directorate of India
B
Foreign Direct Investment
C
Fashion Designer’s Initiative
D
Foreign Directory of Industries
Question 77
The international awards given by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences, California (USA) for excellence in the field of cinema are popularly known as  
A
IIFA Awards
B
Oscar Awards
C
BAFTA Awards
D
Grammy Awards
Question 78
The largest continent in terms of area is  
A
Asia
B
Africa
C
Australia
D
North America
Question 79
The space agency NASA belongs to  
A
Germany
B
USA
C
Russia
D
France
Question 80
The basic function of technology ‘Blue tooth’ is to allow  
A
landline phone to mobile phone communication
B
signal transmission on mobile phones only
C
satellite television communication
D
wireless communication between equipment
Question 81
Which among the following is the source of a non-conventional energy?  
A
Solar Power
B
Coal
C
Uranium
D
Petroleum
Question 82
Directions (Qs. 82-85): Each of these questions consists of two statements followed by two conclusions I and II respectively. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statements. Mark answer as A. if only conclusion I follows B. if only conclusion II follows C. if neither conclusion I nor II follows D. if both conclusions I and II follow Statements: I. All jungles are tigers.                                  II. Some tigers are horses. Conclusions: I. Some tigers are jungles.                          II. All horses are jungles.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 83
Statements: I. All birds are tall.                                  II. Some tall are hens. Conclusions: I. Some birds are hens.                          II. Some hens are tall.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 84
Statements: I. All artists are smokers.                                 II. Some smokers are drinkers. Conclusions: I. Some smokers are artists.                         II. Some drinkers are not smokers.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 85
Statements: I. Some hens are cows.                                  II. All cows are horses. Conclusions:      I. Some horses are hens.                              II. Some hens are horses.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 86
Directions (Qs. 86-89): The questions given below have a statement followed by two assumptions I and II. Decide which of the assumptions is implicit from the statement. Mark answer as A. if only assumption I is implicit B. if only assumption II is implicit C. if neither assumption I nor II is implicit D. if both assumptions I and II are implicit Statement: ‘Invest in our regular scheme and earn an interest of at least 10%’. Advertisement by a financial institution. Assumptions: I. 10% interest may attract a good number of investors. II. No other scheme offers interest as high as 10%.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 87
Statement: ‘For easier and faster communication, use our broadcast connections’. An advertisement. Assumptions: I. Many people are looking up for the best communication facilities. II. Broadband connections are the preferred modes of communications.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 88
Statement: ‘You must refer to learn to dictionary, if you want to become a good writer’, A advises B. Assumptions: I. Only writers refer to the dictionary. II. All writers, good or bad, refer to the dictionary.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 89
Statement: A advises B, ‘If you want to study English, join Institute Y.’ Assumptions: I. B listens to A’s advice. II. Institute Y provides good coaching for English.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 90
Directions (Qs. 90-99): Each of these questions has a statement based on the preceding passage. Evaluate each statement and mark answer as A. if the statement is a Major Objective in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker B. if the statement is a Major Factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, which fundamentally affects and/or determines the decision C. if the statement is a Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly D. if the statement is a Major Assumption in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factor and alternative                                                     PASSAGE – I The Delhi University’s (DU) decision to convert its three-year undergraduate (UG) programmes into four years with multiple exit points and greater freedom for students to pick their subjects is an excellent step. Unlike the top universities in the US, Britain and in other developed nations, most Indian universities continue to thrust a mandatory course structure down the throats of students, giving them little opportunity to figure out where their real interests and abilities lie. At present, if a student wants to change her stream, she will have to drop a year and apply afresh. In the new scheme of things, multiple exit points will allow students to leave the course after three years and come back later to continue it. The new four-year programme will align with international degree programmes, making it easier for students to apply abroad for post-graduate (PG) courses. Only India’s professional education schools that teach engineering, architecture, law and medicine have internationally aligned course structures. At present, humanities and science student can’t go to the US to study after they finish a their three-year UG programmes because they fall short of the requirement of 16 years (10+2+4) of formal education that American varsities want. Earlier in the year, DU launched meta-university, which gives student from one varsity the chance to study in another varsity. These two reforms-coupled with the shift to a semester system – indicate that administrators and policy-makers are now willing to move forward. That DU is at the forefront of these reforms is a welcome sign because it is the country’s largest university (in terms of numbers of full-time students) and has historically shown the way to India’s higher education system. But such changes can be introduced and sustained only with the support of all stakeholders. As the fracas between the last DU vice-chancellor and his faculty over the semester system showed, the absence of discussions with teachers, students and independent academicians can make the reform process painful. The new four-year programme will align with international degree programme.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 91
Humanities and science students fall short of the requirement of sixteen years of formal education.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 92
Students will get enough opportunities to pursue courses of their abilities and interests.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 93
Students can apply abroad for post graduate courses.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 94
Delhi University (DU) is the largest university in the country.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 95
                                                  PASSAGE – II Over half of the total number of malls in the Delhi-National Capital Region (NCR) are vacant due to reasons like economic and lack of robust revenue generation model, according to a survey conducted by the Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (Assocham). The total rate of vacancy in malls in Delhi NCR is 55% while in Mumbai it is 52% followed by Ahmedabad-51%, Chennai-50%, Hyderabad-48% and Bangaluru-45%. The survey further said that construction of several malls have significantly been delayed and withdrawn due to lukewarm response from retailers. Vacancy levels are due to poor location, poor design and poor parking facilities while some are operating at 60% occupancy. The industry is also facing problems like multiple taxes, lack of clarity in policies and shortage of experts in areas such as supply chain and store management. Biggest shopping mall can feel like a pretty lonely place. Majority of retailers said that they are holding back on new store openings and focusing on existing stores. The sharpest decline in mall rental values are also recorded high in Delhi-NCR followed by Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Chennai, Hyderabad, Bangaluru, Kolkata and Pune. Most of the shop owners, who participated in the survey said that increasing rents will not work because at the end of the day, it has to be affordable for retailers to do business. There are about 1,200 shopping malls in the country. Due to high rent and lack of proper infrastructure for luxury retailing, many international brands are opting for online retailing. The designing of malls is poor.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 96
The industry is facing problems like multiple taxes, lack of clarity in policies and shortage of experts.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 97
The biggest shopping mall feels like a lonely place.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 98
Business in malls should be affordable to the retailers.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 99
Rents are high and there is a lack of infrastructure for luxury retailing.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 100
Directions (Qs. 100-102): Read the following situation to answer these questions.                                                   SITUATION Urban areas in India are extremely dirty and the conditions are deteriorating day by day. Big heaps and mounds of piled garbage can be seen not only around slums, but also around busy market places, where transactions in millions take place. Public health is the immediate sufferer and during the spread of any epidemic, lives of people are at the risk. The problems can be overcome by adopting an alternate method of New Public Management (NPM). According to a survey, a traditional bureau chief carries out garbage at present with battalions of sweepers and fleets of trucks. So, much of time is spent in handling inputs to the workers. NPM is the new technique of extension of market principles to public administration. It includes giving contracts of services to the private sectors, which could include cooperatives of former municipal employees. By this method, the bureau chief can supervise the output of his bureau, instead of focusing on inputs. This is the need of the hour as we need clean towns to ensure hygienic atmosphere. What would the former employees of municipal corporations do, if New public Management is implemented?  
A
Supervise the outputs of the bureau
B
Become jobless as the contracts will be in the hands of private sector and hence they will form unions and go on strikes
C
Form co-operatives and start delivering the same services they have been rendering
D
Be paid more due to increase in efficiency and adaptability
Question 101
What can be inferred from the given situation?  
A
Poverty is also responsible for epidemics break through
B
Dirty surroundings not always reflect poverty
C
Lives of the poor people are at a greater risk
D
Poverty is an indication of dirty surroundings
Question 102
What is the advantage of New Public Management over traditional system?  
A
The bureau chief can devote more time and attention to the result of the work undertaken
B
The New Public Management is more efficient and economical than the traditional system
C
The new Public Management will ensure cleaner cities and towns
D
None of these
Question 103
Directions (Qs. 103-106): A business situation is given below followed by four possible conclusions which can be drawn from the facts stated in the situation. You have to examine each conclusion separately in the context of the situation and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer as A. if conclusion is definitely true B. if conclusion is probably true C. if information given in passage is inadequate to provide the answer D. if conclusion is definitely false ‘Indian rice exporters might face tough competition in the International market’, allege the exporters. International demand for Indian rice surfaced, either due to its low prices or due to the crop failure in other competitive countries. However, our competitors are having a good crop of rice this year and which indeed sounds as a threat for India, they pointed out. The leading producing countries like Thailand, Vietnam, Myanmar, USA and Pakistan are bringing down their prices at par with Indian prices. Internationally, these countries have reduced price by $ 50 per tonne in lower grades, coming almost at par with Indian prices. Indian rice currently quoting price between $ 260 and $ 265 per tonne. However, in high grade the difference still remains high. Therefore, India can expect to be competitive in high grades provided the quality and deliveries are ensured in time. Pakistan is our main competitor and it has reduced its price by 15 per cent coming almost in line with the Indian prices. The very fact that international producers have started to reduce their price is a signal for Indian exporters to gear up for 2013-14. Indian rice exporters have no potential threat in the International market for exporting rice.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 104
Quality and delivery of goods in time are the two main components for being in the forefront.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 105
To remain in the International market, India should reduce its price.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 106
Indian crops were inferior in quality than the leading rice-producing countries.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 107
Directions (Qs. 107-109): Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The number of aboriginal inhabitants in Australia is considerable.  
A
primitive
B
ancient
C
unoriginal
D
irrational
Question 108
The American policy did much to escalate the conflict.  
A
spread in a wider area
B
scale up
C
reduce in intensity
D
put an end to
Question 109
The country’s resources should be judiciously used.  
A
sparingly
B
reasonably
C
inadequately
D
immensely
Question 110
Directions (Qs. 110-112): Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. He has a delicate constitution.  
A
fit
B
ungainly
C
strong
D
rugged
Question 111
His appointment was confirmed last month.  
A
disappointment
B
discharge
C
suspension
D
dismissal
Question 112
It used to be said that travel broadens one’s outlook.  
A
restricts
B
contracts
C
shrinks
D
narrows
Question 113
Directions (Qs. 113-116): Choose the option that is the plural form of the given word. Anomaly  
A
anomalys
B
anomaly’s
C
anomalice
D
anomalies
Question 114
Louse  
A
lice
B
louses
C
louse’s
D
lousies
Question 115
Mouse  
A
mice
B
mouses
C
mousse
D
mouse
Question 116
Syllabus  
A
sylabus
B
syllabi
C
syllabus’
D
syllabuses
Question 117
Directions (Qs. 117-120): In each of these questions, choose the option which can be substituted for the given words. To examine one’s own thoughts and feelings.  
A
Meditation
B
Retrospection
C
Reflection
D
Introspection
Question 118
A song embodying religious and sacred emotions.  
A
Lyric
B
Ode
C
Hymn
D
Ballad
Question 119
List of headings of the business to be transacted at a meeting.  
A
Schedule
B
Agenda
C
Proceedings
D
Excerpts
Question 120
To confine within walls.  
A
Immure
B
Immune
C
Immolate
D
Immigrant
Question 121
Directions (Qs. 121-128): Fill in the blanks. The main road neatly _________ the town and offers a panoramic of all its delights, ranging from nature parks to an amusement centre, a nine hole golf course to mountain resorts and a/an ________ of shopping and dining options for your family.  
A
bisects, plethora
B
cuts, range
C
divides, diversity
D
demarcates, excess
Question 122
I have seen many people go through a lifetime of anger, __________ at the rottenness of our society, at the inefficiency of our infrastructure, the _________ things they are not capable of doing.  
A
exploding, callous
B
raving, cruel
C
shouting, mean
D
ranting, unhappy
Question 123
The differentiated entitlements could be __________ to those who are economically or physically _________.  
A
confined, underprivileged
B
concerning, lesser than
C
capsule, privileged
D
restricted, handicapped
Question 124
Should it enable every child, women and man to have an _______ for a healthy and productive life or just have ______ to the calories required for existence.  
A
interest, view
B
opportunity, access
C
occasion, sight
D
end, reach
Question 125
To ensure food security for all, we should be clear about the definition of the problem, the precise index of _______ impact and the road map to ___________ the goal.  
A
gauging, promote
B
measuring, achieve
C
counting, reach
D
checking, scale
Question 126
We __________ to inform you that we cannot include your thesis in our library, on the _________ of not receiving permission from your supervisor.  
A
saddened, reason
B
lament, pretext
C
repent, justification
D
regret, grounds
Question 127
When her illness took a turn for the worse, the doctors took __________ to _________ the situation.  
A
steps, ameliorate
B
approaches, better
C
modes, improve
D
measures, enhance
Question 128
The public relations agency __________ out all the stops to ensure a _________ attendance at the gala.  
A
gave, phenomenal
B
took, marvellous
C
pulled, spectacular
D
forked, staggering
Question 129
Directions (Qs. 129-131): In each of these questions, choose the option which can be substituted for the given words. To form a plot or scheme, especially one to do something wrong or wicked, or designed to cause harm.  
A
Machinate
B
Conspire
C
Machete
D
Fatal
Question 130
A place or state of uncontrollable confusion or destructive forces, especially one to which someone or something is inevitably drawn.  
A
Maelstrom
B
Megilp
C
Senate house
D
Magistral
Question 131
Very high-spirited; full of cheerfulness or enthusiasm.    
A
Eccentric
B
Eburnean
C
Sporting
D
Ebullient
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FDDI AIST Model Papers 2022:

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FDDI AIST Result 2022

  • FDDI AIST Results 2022 will be declared on June 2019, with in the 15 days of entrance exam.
  • FDDI AIST results 2022 will be available on the website, www.uceed.in. Candidates need to use their Enter your Roll / Registration Number (created during registration) for viewing the results on the webpage.
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