GATE Life Sciences Online Mock Test Free

GATE Life Sciences Online Mock Test Free. This mock test having 25 questions in each subjects Chemistry, Biochemistry, Botany, Microbiology, Zoology, Food Technology, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this GATE XL test question details at the end of the quiz.

GATE 2019 : Life Sciences (XL) questions answers are applicable for any kind of Life Sciences Entrance preparation or PSU Competitive Exam in India. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers GATE XL Exam 2019 critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking all India engineering entrance level exam.

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Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which one of the following statements is TRUE when a cell is kept in a hypotonic solution?  
A
Water moves out of the cell
B
Size of the cell remains same
C
No movement of water takes place
D
Size of the cell increases
Question 2
Which one of the following amino acids has a higher propensity for cis peptide bond formation?  
A
Histidine
B
Cysteine
C
Glycine
D
Proline
Question 3
The order n for a given substrate concentration in an enzyme catalyzed reaction following Michaelis-Menten kinetics, is  
A
n = 1
B
n = 0
C
n is not defined
D
0 ≤ n ≤ 1
Question 4
Which one of the following amino acid residues is specifically recognised by chymotrypsin during peptide bond cleavage?  
A
Phe
B
Leu
C
Val
D
Asp
Question 5
During the biosynthesis of urea in the urea cycle, the two nitrogen atoms are derived from  
A
Two free ammonium groups
B
Free ammonium group and aspartate
C
Both nitrogen atoms are derived from arginine
D
One nitrogen atom is derived from citrulline and one from glutamate.
Question 6
An enzyme has two binding sites for an inhibitor molecule. When the inhibitor binds to the first site, the dissociation constant of the inhibitor for the second site increases, leading to negative co-operativity. The Hill coefficient for such an inhibitor is  
A
equal to one
B
greater than one
C
less than one
D
less than zero
Question 7
In different types of tissue transplantations, the rate of graft rejection in decreasing order is  
A
Isograft > Xenograft > Allograft
B
Allograft > Isograft > Xenograft
C
Xenograft > Autograft > Allograft
D
Xenograft > Allograft > Isograft
Question 8
You have prepared 1.0 liter of 0.5 M acetate buffer (pH=5.0). The dissociation constant of acetic acid is 1.7×10-5 M. What would be the acetate ion concentration in the buffer?  
A
0.1M
B
0.25 M
C
0.315 M
D
0.415 M
Question 9
Arrange the following in the increasing order of amount of ATP generated by metabolism of one molecule of the following compounds. (i) Anaerobic catabolism of starch with 300 glucose units (ii) Aerobic catabolism of glucose (iii) Aerobic catabolism of acetate (iv) Aerobic catabolism of palmitate  
A
(ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
B
(iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
C
(iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
D
(iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
Question 10
Match the following enzymes with their regulatory mechanism (a) Phosphofructokinase         1. Product inhibition (b) Glycogen synthase            2. Control of enzyme synthesis (c) β-galactosidase                3. Allosteric interaction (d) Lactate dehydrogenase     4. Covalent modification  
A
(a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4
B
(a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1
C
(a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4
D
(a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3
Question 11
An enzyme of 40 kDa is added to a substrate solution in a molar ratio of 1:3. The concentration of the enzyme in the mixture is 12 mg/ml. What would be the corresponding substrate concentration?  
A
0.4 mM
B
0.12 mM
C
0.9 mM
D
0.3 mM
Question 12
A patient suffering from pneumonia and tuberculosis was found to have very low CD4+ T cells. In all probability the PRIMARY causative infectious agent belongs to  
A
Klebsiella family
B
Mycobacterium family
C
Retrovirus family
D
Streptococcus family
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GATE Life Sciences Online Mock Test 2

GATE Botany Online Mock Test Free

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Question 1
Bast fibres are present in  
A
Xylem
B
Phloem
C
Collenchyma
D
Parenchyma
Question 2
During cellular respiratory process, pyruvate must be oxidized to acetyl CoA and CO2 before it enters the citric acid cycle. The corresponding simplified equation is Pyruvate + NAD+ + CoASH Acetyl-S-CoA + NADH + CO2 This oxidation reaction occurs in mitochondria and is carried out in presence of the enzyme  
A
Pyruvate kinase
B
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C
Pyruvate decarboxylase
D
Pyruvate carboxylase
Question 3
Which one of the following statements having the terms - gene, chromosome and genome is    
A
The rice gene contains about 50,000 genomes located on 12 different chromosomes
B
The rice genome contains about 50,000 genes located on 12 different chromosomes
C
The rice chromosome contains about 50,000 genes located on 12 different genomes
D
The rice genome contains about 50,000 chromosomes located on 12 different genes
Question 4
The aflatoxin found in post-harvested grains is injurious to health due to  
A
Aspergillus
B
Alternaria
C
Fusarium
D
Phytopthora
Question 5
Identify the event that exclusively occurs in meiotic cell division  
A
Chromatid formation
B
Spindle formation
C
Synapsis
D
Chromosome movement to pole
Question 6
In the symbiotic nitrogen fixation process, Leghemoglobin present in the nodule helps in fixing nitrogen in presence of the enzyme  
A
Nitrate synthetase
B
Nitrate synthase
C
Glutathione synthetase
D
Nitrogenase
Question 7
Considering environment and ecosystem, identify the INCORRECT statement  
A
In detrital food chain, it is very difficult to measure the energy flow although the use of radioactive tracers give some idea about the energy flow
B
The change in species composition, community structure and function over time is ecological succession
C
The slower rise of environmental temperature may be attributed to the increase in pollution in environment which reflects enough solar energy back to other spacer to slow down global warming
D
Photoperiodism has no relation with the environment and ecosystem, rather it is a biological event taking place in every plant
Question 8
The two enzymes commonly used for isolation of protoplasts from plants are  
A
Cellulase and Lipase
B
Cellulase and Amylase
C
Pectinase and Cellulase
D
Pectinase and Lipase
Question 9
For successful transfer of a foreign gene from the engineered Ti-plasmid to the plant genome, few cis-acting DNA elements and trans-acting protein factors are very much essential. Select the CORRECT combination from the following  
A
Opine catabolism genes, Left border sequence, Right border sequence
B
Opine catabolism genes, Left border sequence, Virulence genes
C
Hormone biosynthetic genes, Right border sequence, Virulence genes
D
Left border sequence, Right border sequence, Virulence genes
Question 10
In naturally occurring cytoplasmic male sterility, the molecular determinant is located in  
A
Chloroplast
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
Golgi complex
D
Mitochondria
Question 11
Which two of the following are the CORRECT statements ? P. Nondisjunction in the parental meiosis is not essential to produce diploid organisms Q. Nondisjunction in the parental meiosis is essential to produce aneuploid organisms R. Nondisjunction in the parental meiosis is essential to produce hexaploid organisms S. Nondisjunction in the parental meiosis is essential to produce tetraploid organisms  
A
P,Q
B
Q,R
C
R,S
D
P,S
Question 12
Select the CORRECT set comprising only the synthetic analogues of auxin and cytokinin  
A
IAA and Kinetin
B
2, 4-D and Zeatin
C
IAA and Zeatin
D
2, 4-D and Kinetin
Question 13
Which two of the following are the INCORRECT statements ? P. In monocotyledonous stems with closed vascular bundle, secondary growth takes place without any cambium Q. In dicotyledonous stems hypodermis is collenchymatous R. Mobilization of storage reserves takes place during post-germination of embryo S. Osborne’s classification of seed storage proteins is based upon solubility in n-hexane  
A
P,R
B
Q,S
C
Q,R
D
P,S
Question 14
Identify two CORRECT statements from the following which are related to the ion transportation in the root system of plant P. The proton pumps and H+-pyrophosphatase appear to work in anti-parallel with the vacuolar ATPase to create a proton gradient across the tonoplast Q. Calcium is one of the important ion whose concentration is strongly regulated by the concentration of apoplastic spaces in the millimolar level R. Solute move through both apoplast and symplast, and xylem parenchyma cells participate in xylem loading S. The limitation of Nerst equation for relating the membrane potential to the distribution of ion at equilibrium is that it cannot distinguish between active and passive transport  
A
P,S
B
Q,R
C
R,S
D
Q,S
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GATE Life Sciences Online Mock Test 3

GATE Microbiology Online Mock Test Free

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Question 1
In 1976, Tonegawa’s experiment gave clue about gene rearrangement during differentiation of Bcells. The two different types of cells used in this experiment were  
A
HeLa cells and fibrosarcoma cells
B
embryonic cells and fibroblasts
C
adult myeloma cells and HeLa cells
D
embryonic cells and adult myeloma cells
Question 2
To which one of the following groups, the antibiotics kanamycin, streptomycin and gentamicin belong  
A
cephalosporins
B
macrolides
C
aminoglycosides
D
quinolones
Question 3
Which one of the following transport mechanism is NOT employed by prokaryotes?  
A
Passive diffusion
B
Group translocation
C
Endocytosis
D
Active transport
Question 4
The most common indicator organism of faecal pollution in water is  
A
Clostridium botulinum
B
Bacillus subtilis
C
Escherichia coli
D
Clostridium tetani
Question 5
The theoretical maximum number of ATP molecules produced from aerobic oxidation of glucose by eukaryotic cells is  
A
38
B
24
C
12
D
8
Question 6
Which one of the following DO NOT use water as an electron source during photosynthesis?  
A
Sulfate reducing bacteria
B
Methanogenic bacteria
C
Green and purple bacteria
D
Nitrifying bacteria
Question 7
The enzyme that catalyzes the reduction of nitrogen to ammonia is  
A
nitrogenase
B
nitrate reductase
C
nitrite reductase
D
deaminase
Question 8
Chemostat is a continuous culture system in which sterile medium is fed into the culture vessel at the same rate as the spent medium is removed. If in a chemostat culture, the flow rate is 30 ml h-1 and volume of the medium inside the vessel is 100 ml, the dilution rate in h-1 is  
A
3.33
B
1.50
C
0.75
D
0.30
Question 9
In an experiment the structural genes lacZYAof lac operon were found to be constitutively expressed. The following explanations were given for the constitutive expression (P) absence of a functional repressor due to mutation in the repressor gene lacI (Q) mutation in the operator that can no longer bind the repressor (R) mutation in the lacAgene Which of the following is CORRECT  
A
Only P
B
Only Q
C
Both P & Q
D
Only R
Question 10
Which one of the following is TRUE about siderophores in bacteria?  
A
Siderophores are secreted only when soluble iron is available in the medium
B
Siderophores form complex with ferrous ions in the medium
C
Siderophores are the only route of iron uptake
D
Siderophores form complex with ferric ions in the medium
Question 11
In a population containing fast and slow growing bacteria, the slow growing bacteria can be enriched by supplementing the medium with  
A
chloramphenicol
B
penicillin
C
penicillin & chloramphenicol
D
rifampin
Question 12
When the supply of tryptophan is plentiful, the tryptophan operon is repressed because the  
A
repressor protein-corepressor complex is bound at the operator
B
repressor protein is synthesized in large quantity
C
repressor-corepressor complex is not formed
D
repressor becomes inactive and therefore has reduced specificity for the operator
Question 13
Match the scientists in Group I with their contributions in microbiology in Group II Group I P. Robert Hooke Q. Paul Ehrlich R. Antony van Leeuwenhoek S. Sergei Winogradsky Group II I. Proved that microbes can cause diseases II. First to observe cells III. First to observe bacteria IV. Used the first synthetic chemotherapeutic agent V. Linked specific bacteria to biogeochemical transformations  
A
P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-V
B
P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-V
C
P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-IV
D
P-V, Q-III, R-IV, S-II
Question 14
Match the microscopes in Group I with their working principles in Group II Group I P. Phase contrast Q. Dark field R. Bright field S. Electron microscopy Group II I. Light reaches the specimen only from the sides II. Uses fluorescent dyes III. Difference in the refractive index of cells from their surrounding medium IV. Difference in contrast between specimen and its surrounding medium V. Uses electrons instead of photons as energy source  
A
P-V, Q-II, R-III, S-V
B
P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-V
C
P-III, Q-II, R-V, S-I
D
P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-V
Question 15
In a phenol coefficient test for determining the efficacy of a disinfectant X, the maximum effective dilution for X and phenol was found to be 1/450 and 1/90, respectively. Calculate the phenol coefficient for X.  
A
10.0
B
5.0
C
1.0
D
0.2
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