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General Proficiency Test (GPT)

General Proficiency Test (GPT) Online Mock Test– Question Answers For Undergraduate and Postgraduate Admission entrance test in Fashion & Designing Courses in India.

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  • General Proficiency Test (GPT) is administered to judge a candidate’s proficiency in the English
    language (comprehension, vocabulary and expression), Language Ability, Logical Reasoning,
    Quantitative Ability, Data Interpretation, Basic Mathematics, etc.

General Proficiency Test (GPT) for Post graduate exam 2016 questions answers are applicable for any kind of fashion designing entrance You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers General Proficiency Test (GPT) Test critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking all level exam. For more resources you can go through Fashion and Designing Entrance Exam 2016.



General Proficiency Test (GPT) - Undergraduate - Mock Test

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Question 1
9999 + 8888 + 777 + ? = 19700  
A
36
B
16
C
64
D
26
Question 2
60?6 × 111 = 666666 
A
0
B
2
C
1
D
6
Question 3
Find the least number of 3 digits, which is exactly devisible by 14.  
A
112
B
100
C
114
D
None of these
Question 4
Find the distance covered by a man walking for 12 min. at a speed of 3.5 km/h.  
A
0.7 km
B
7 km
C
1.7 km
D
7.7 km
Question 5
Find the greatest number of 5 digit which is exactly divisible by 463.  
A
99082
B
99545
C
99568
D
99999
Question 6
What is the compound interest on Rs. 5,000 for 4 years if the rate of interest is 10% p.a. for the first 2 years and 20% p.a. for the next 2 years?  
A
Rs. 2,320.50
B
Rs. 3,712
C
Rs. 3,745
D
Rs. 5,368
Question 7
What is the number of numbers between 400 and 500 if both the numbers are counted?  
A
101
B
100
C
99
D
102
Question 8
How many bricks are required to build a wall of 15 metres length, 12 metres height and 20cm thickness if the brick is 36 cm long, 25 cm wide and 10 cm thick?  
A
2000
B
4000
C
12000
D
None of these
Question 9
A certain type of bacteria reproduce itself at the rate 10 every 5 minutes. In how many minutes will the number double itself?  
A
20 minutes
B
30 minutes
C
40 minutes
D
None of these
Question 10
Directions (Q. Nos. 10-12): What approximate value will come in place of the question-mark (?) in following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value) 465.84 + 764.86 – 211.99 = ?  
A
1100
B
10800
C
1000
D
1020
Question 11
149.9% of 149.9 + 149.9 = ?  
A
375
B
400
C
350
D
425
Question 12
3001 × 749 ÷ 1001 – 1399 = ?  
A
650
B
700
C
950
D
850
Question 13
The average of five numbers is 56. If the average of first four numbers is 54. What is the value of the fifth number?  
A
68
B
72
C
56
D
64
Question 14
If a number is added to seven-ninth of thirty five percent of 900, the value so obtained is 325. What is the number?  
A
60
B
120
C
90
D
80
Question 15
What least numbers should be subtracted from 1740, so that it will be completely divisible by 88?  
A
156
B
68
C
58
D
146
Question 16
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-18): What will come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions? 36 × 15 – 56 × 784 ÷ 112 = ?  
A
138
B
238
C
158
D
148
Question 17
28.314 – 31.427 + 113.928 = ? + 29.114  
A
81.711
B
80.701
C
71.711
D
81.701
Question 18
36% of 420 – 56% of 350 = ? – 94  
A
48.2
B
49.2
C
– 138.8
D
– 158.8
Question 19
It takes 6 technicians a total of 10 hours to build a new server from Direct Computer, with each working at the same rate. If six technicians start to build the server at 11 a.m., and one technician per hour is added beginning at 5 p.m., at what time will the server be complete?  
A
6:40 p.m.
B
7 p.m.
C
7:20 p.m.
D
8 p.m.
Question 20
A child was asked to add first few natural numbers (that is, 1 + 2 + 3 + ….) so long his patience permitted. As he stopped, he gave the sum as 575. When the teacher declared the result wrong the child discovered he had missed on number in the sequence during addition. The number he missed was  
A
less than 10
B
10
C
15
D
more than 15
Question 21
After the division of a number successively by 3, 4 and 7, the remainders obtained are 2, 1 and 4 respectively. What will be the remainder if 84 divide the same number?  
A
80
B
76
C
41
D
53
Question 22
Find the least number which when divided by 36, 48 and 64 leaves the remainders 25, 37 and 53 respectively.  
A
565
B
321
C
454
D
981
Question 23
A man reads 3/8 of a book on a day and 4/5 of the remainder, on the second day. If the number of pages still unread is 40, how many pages did the book contain?  
A
300
B
315
C
320
D
None of these
Question 24
Directions (Q. Nos. 24-27): Choose the missing term from given alternatives. GBC, HDF, IFI, ………….. 
A
JKL
B
JLH
C
JHI
D
JHL
Question 25
a_ab_babab_b 
A
bbb
B
aaa
C
baa
D
aab
Question 26
The next number in the series 2, -4, 8, -16, 32, …………. is  
A
– 64
B
64
C
128
D
– 128
Question 27
The next number in the series 3, 5, 8, 12, 17, 23, ………. is  
A
25
B
30
C
32
D
39
Question 28
If in a certain language ‘rom pom to’ means ‘girl is bad’, ‘maim to tee’ means ‘boy is ugly’ and ‘dum pom po’ means ‘they are bad’, which word in that language means ‘girl’?  
A
to
B
tee
C
pom
D
rom
Question 29
It in a certain code ‘nee tim see’ means ‘how are you’, ‘ble nee see’ means ‘where are you’? What is the code for ‘where’?  
A
see
B
tim
C
nee
D
ble
Question 30
A watch reads 12 : 15. If the hour hand points towards North – East, in which direction does its minute hand points?  
A
South – East
B
South
C
East
D
South – West
Question 31
Seema walks 40 m South. Then she turns right and walks 60 m. Then she turns right and walks 55 m. Then she again turns left and walks 35 m. Then she again turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how far is she from the starting point?  
A
105 m East
B
105 m West
C
75 m East
D
95 m West
Question 32
Shiva walks 10 km towards North and then turns right. After walking 3 km he again turns right and walks 7 km. Now he turns left and walks 1 km. How far is he from the starting point?  
A
10 km
B
7 km
C
20 km
D
5 km
Question 33
Directions (Q. Nos. 33-36): Study the following information carefully and answer these questions. An exhibition is open for public since 9 a.m. till 3 p.m. and again since 4 p.m. till 10 p.m. In a day there are 12 batches of 1 hour each. The entry ticket bears a pass-code made up of seven words, which changes every hour following a particular rule. The pass-codes for 4 p.m. to 10 p.m. are same as those for respective hours during 9 a.m. till 3 p.m. i.e., the pass-code for 4 p.m. to 5 p.m. is same as of 9 a.m. to 10 a.m. and so on. Following is an illustration of the code and steps of rearrangement for subsequent clock hours and so on.  
                     Day’s Pass-Code
First batch 9 a.m. to 10 a.m. (4 p.m. to 5 p.m.)dig more and you will find water.
Second batch10 a.m. to 11 a.m. (5 p.m. to 6 p.m.) and dig find you water will more.
Third batch 11 a.m. to 12 noon (6 p.m. to 7 p.m.)find and will you more water dig. 
 QuestionIf the pass-code for 7 p.m. to 8 p.m. batch is ‘pen with write pencil nice time day’, what will be the pass-code for 11 a.m. to 12 noon?  
A
Day nice with pencil write pen time
B
Day with nice pencil write pen time
C
Nice day with pencil write pen time
D
None of these
Question 34
If the pass-code for the batch 4 p.m. to 5 p.m. is ‘go to office in time every day, what will be the pass-code for 2 p.m. to 3 p.m. batch?  
A
Day to go in every office time
B
To day go in every office time
C
To go day in every office time
D
To go in day every office time
Question 35
If the pass-code for third batch is ‘any cold and at is hill station’, which batch will have the pass-code station is cold at and any hill?  
A
Fifth
B
Fourth
C
Second
D
First
Question 36
If the pass-code for the second batch is ‘do not play the near water dirty’, what will be the pass-code for 2 p.m. to 3 p.m. batch?  
A
Dirty near play the not do water
B
Near dirty not the play do water
C
Dirty near not the play do water
D
Near dirty not the play water do
Question 37
Directions (Q Nos. 37-41): In these questions a statement is given followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Mark the answer as: (1) If only argument I is strong (2) If only argument II is strong (3) If both the arguments are strong (4) If neither I nor II is strong.Question Statement: Has the Medical Science really lengthened the span of life? Argument I : Yes, the new drugs have been able to combat the diseases and increases the span of life. Argument II : No, the eternal truth that every person’s days are numbered cannot be denied.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 38
Statement : Should mass media be fully controlled by the government? Argument I : Yes, the contradictory news only confuses the people. Argument II : No, its credibility will be doubtful if it confuses people.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 39
Statement : Should sales tax be abolished? Argument I: Yes, it will eliminate an important sources of corruption. Argument II : Yes, it will bring the prices of commodities down and, hence consumers will be benefited.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 40
Statement: Should there be women chief ministers in states? Argument I: Yes, only then will the plight of women be removed and their conditions will improve. Argument II: No, a woman is not capable of ruling a state.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 41
Statement: Computer based technology is very fruitful for industrial development in India. Argument I: Yes, accuracy, fast production and fineness are possible through computer technology. Argument II: No, it will increase unemployment in the country.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 42
Directions (Q. Nos. 42-46): Study the following data and answer these questions. Exactly six person from amongst five boys – A, B, C, D, E – and four girls – P, Q, R, S – are to sit in six chairs, which are arranged in a row from left to right, and the others must stand. The following conditions are to be adhered to while making the arrangement. (i) No two girls sit in adjacent seats. (ii) Exactly three boys should be among those who are seated in these six chairs. (iii) A and P are seated next to each other. (iv) If E sits, then R also sits and vice versa, but they are not sit next to each other. (v) If P or R sits, then Q will stand.Question If C sits at the extreme left end and A is sitting in the second seat from the extreme right end, then who sits to the immediate right of A?  
A
P
B
R
C
Q
D
Cannot be determined
Question 43
Which of the following is not a valid arrangement of persons sitting from left to right?  
A
P, A, E, S, C, R
B
A, P, E, S, C, R
C
S, E, P, A, R, D
D
B, R, E, A, P, Q
Question 44
If D is second from the extreme right, then the total number of possible arrangements is 
A
9
B
7
C
10
D
5
Question 45
If P is sitting at the extreme left end, then who could be sitting at the extreme right end?  
A
R or E
B
E or S
C
S or R
D
R or E or S
Question 46
If it is known that S sits in the third seat from the extreme left end and B sits in the second seat from the extreme right, then who sits exactly next to two girls?  
A
A
B
E
C
B
D
Data Inadequate
Question 47
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-76): Answer these questions independent of each other. Which Folk dance is from Gujarat?  
A
Giddha
B
Garva
C
Ras
D
Nachani
Question 48
India’s position in terms of medals tally at 16th Asian Games 2010 at Guangzhou was  
A
Fifth
B
Sixth
C
Seventh
D
Third
Question 49
Hero group and Honda terminated their 26-year-old joint venture known as Hero Honda. Signed MoU allows Hero Honda group to use Honda brand name on new models until  
A
2012
B
2013
C
2014
D
2015
Question 50
How many Navratna Companies have been upgraded and awarded the status of ‘Maharatna’ companies?  
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
7
Question 51
SAARC Trade Fair was organized between December 15 – 19, 2010 in  
A
Kathmandu (Nepal)
B
Hyderabad (India)
C
Dhaka (Bangladesh)
D
Islamabad (Pakistan)
Question 52
Which of the following public sector enterprise does not posses ‘Maharatna’ status given to four Navratna Companies?  
A
SAIL
B
BHEL
C
ONGC
D
NTPC
Question 53
Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission or Solar India has been launched to create an installed capacity of 2000 MW by the end of  
A
13th Plan
B
14th Plan
C
15th Plan
D
16th Plan
Question 54
The term ’16 yards hit’ is associated with  
A
Badminton
B
Baseball
C
Polo
D
Hockey
Question 55
Detroit city is known for which industry?  
A
Textiles
B
Automobiles
C
Aircraft
D
None of these
Question 56
Who wrote ‘Gulliver’s Travel’, a book famous all over world?  
A
C.S. Lewis
B
J.K. Rowling
C
Jonathan Swift
D
Elizabeth Gilbert
Question 57
‘Indian Railways’ Rail Wheel Factory is located at which place?  
A
Ludhiana
B
Kapurthala
C
Bangalore
D
Varanasi
Question 58
Headquarter of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is located in which city?  
A
Kolkata
B
Delhi
C
Mumbai
D
Chennai
Question 59
Paradip Port is located in which state of India?  
A
Odisha
B
Andhra Pradesh
C
Gujarat
D
Kerala
Question 60
Presently, who is the Chief of the Censor Board?  
A
Shebana Azmi
B
Hema Malini
C
Sharmila Tagore
D
Asha Parekh
Question 61
Which of the following games/sports was not included in the list of Commonwealth Games 2010?  
A
Golf
B
Boxing
C
Hockey
D
Weight lifting
Question 62
‘Transforming Lines’ is the new tagline of which of the following PSUs?  
A
Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.
B
Steel Authority of India Ltd.
C
NTPC Ltd.
D
BHEL
Question 63
Bull fighting is the national game of __________.  
A
Spain
B
Italy
C
Russia
D
Sudan
Question 64
SAFTA stands for _______.  
A
South Asian Free Trade Agreement
B
South Asian Festival of Tourism and Aviation
C
South Asian Free Tourism Association
D
South Asian Free Trade Acts
Question 65
The book ‘Malgudi Days’ has been written by _______.  
A
K.R. Narayanan
B
Rebindra Nath Tagore
C
R.K. Narayan
D
Prem Chand
Question 66
Adline ‘The bankers to every Indian’ is linked with which bank?  
A
ICICI Bank
B
HDFC Bank
C
State Bank of India
D
Bank of India
Question 67
MNP stands for _______.  
A
Mobile Number, Password
B
Maha Nagar Palika
C
Mobile Number Possession
D
Mobile Number Portability
Question 68
Which Five Years plan will start from the year 2012 – 13?  
A
13th
B
12th
C
11th
D
14th
Question 69
National Youth Day is observed on which day?  
A
12 January
B
14 February
C
05 September
D
14 November
Question 70
Michaei Douglas is a well known _______.  
A
Golfer
B
Actor
C
Politician
D
Cricketer
Question 71
Which of the following airlines has recently gone ahead and ordered 180 brand new Airbus A-320s to be delivered between 2016 and 2025?  
A
Kingfisher Airlines
B
IndiGo
C
Sahara Airlines
D
Jetlite
Question 72
Compact Car model ‘Live’ has been recently launched in India by which automobile company?  
A
Toyota
B
Maruti-Suzuki
C
Hyundai
D
None of these
Question 73
Proposed changes in RTI Act include restricting questions per RTI query to one and world count to ______ per query.  
A
250
B
200
C
300
D
150
Question 74
‘Safal’ is the fruit and vegetable division of _______.  
A
Delhi Milk Scheme (DMS)
B
Mother Dairy
C
Nestle
D
ITC
Question 75
Eleventh Five Year Plan covers the period _______.  
A
2007 – 12
B
2006 – 11
C
2008 – 13
D
2009 – 14
Question 76
Which country gives Magsaysay awards?  
A
Indonesia
B
Australia
C
The Philippines
D
South Korea
Question 77
Directions (Questions 77 – 106): Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow each passage.                                                                       PASSAGE – I How many really suffer as a result of labour market problems? This is one of the most critical yet contentious social policy questions. In many ways, our social statistics exaggerate the degree of hardship. Unemployment does not have the same dire consequences today as it did in the 1930s when most of the unemployed were primary breadwinners, when income and earnings were usually much closer to the margin of subsistence, and when there were no countervailing social programmes for those failing in the labour market. Increasing affluence, the rise of families with more than one wage earner, the growing predominance of secondary earners among the unemployed, and improved social welfare protection have unquestionably mitigated the consequences of joblessness. Earnings and income data also overstate the dimensions of hardship. Among the millions with hourly earnings at or below the minimum wage level, the overwhelming majority are from multiple-earner, relatively affluent families. Most of those counted by the poverty statistics are elderly or handicapped or have family responsibilities which keep them out of the labour force, so the poverty statistics are by no means an accurate indicator of labour market pathologies. Yet there are also many ways our social statistics underestimate the degree of labour-market-related hardship. The unemployment counts exclude the millions of fully employed workers whose wages are so low that their families remain in poverty. Low wages and repeated or prolonged unemployment frequently interact to undermine the capacity for self-support. Since the number experiencing joblessness at same time during the year is several times the number unemployed in any month, those who suffer as a result of forced idleness can equal or exceed average annual unemployment, even through only a minority of the jobless in any month really suffer. For every person counted in the monthly unemployment tallies, there is another working part-time because of the inability to find full-time work, or else outside the labour force but wanting a job. Finally, income transfers in our country have always focused on the elderly, disabled, and dependent, neglecting the needs of the working poor, so that the dramatic expansion of cash and in-kind transfers does not necessarily mean that those failing in the labour market are adequately protected. As a result of such contradictory evidence, it is uncertain whether those suffering seriously as a result of labour market problems number in the hundreds of thousands or the tens of millions, and, hence, whether high levels of joblessness can be tolerated or must be countered by job creation and economic stimulus. There is only one are of agreement in this debate that the existing poverty, employment and earnings statics are inadequate for their primary applications, measuring the consequences of labour market problems.Question Which of the following is the principal topic of the passage?  
A
What causes labour market pathologies that result in suffering.
B
Why income measures are imprecise in measuring degree of poverty.
C
Which of the currently used statistical procedures are the best for estimating the incidence of hardship that is due to unemployment.
D
How social statistics give an unclear picture of the degree of hardship caused by low wages and insufficient employment opportunities.
Question 78
The author contrasts the 1930s with the present in order to show that  
A
more people were unemployed in the 1930s.
B
unemployment now has less severe effects.
C
social programmes are more needed now.
D
there now is a greater proportion of elderly and handicapped people among those in poverty.
Question 79
Which of the following proposals best responds to the issues raised by the author?  
A
Innovative programmes using multiple approaches should be set up to reduce the level of unemployment.
B
A compromise should be found between the positions of those who view joblessness as an evil greater than economic control and those who hold the opposite view.
C
New statistical indices should be developed to measures the degree to which unemployment and inadequately paid employment cause suffering.
D
Consideration should be given to the ways in which statistics can act as partial causes of the phenomena that they purport to measure.
Question 80
The author’s purpose in citing those who are repeatedly unemployed during a twelve-month period is most probably to show that  
A
there are several factors that cause the payment of low wages to some members of the labour force.
B
unemployment statistics can underestimate the hardship resulting from joblessness.
C
recurrent inadequacies in the labour market can exist and can cause hardships for individual workers.
D
a majority of those who are jobless at any one time do not suffer server hardship.
Question 81
The author states that the mitigating effect of social programmes involving income transfers on the income level of low-income people is often not felt by  
A
the employed poor.
B
dependent children in single earner families.
C
workers who become disabled.
D
retired workers.
Question 82
According to the passage, one factor that causes unemployment and earnings figures to overpredict the amount of economic hardship is the  
A
recurrence of periods of unemployment for a group of low-wage workers.
B
possibility that earning may be received from more than one job per worker.
C
fact that unemployment counts do not include those who work for low wages and remain poor.
D
prevalence, among low-wage workers and the unemployed, of members of families in which others are employed.
Question 83
                                                                                   PASSAGE – II The contribution of small and medium enterprises to the overall growth of the economy is well documented. Not only do they provide more employment opportunities for every rupee of capital invested vis-à-vis the large companies, but the manufacturing sector is also a net earner of foreign exchange. Notwithstanding their contribution, the SME sector is still starved of capital, both from the organized banking sector as also from alternate sources like private equity. Venture capital funds, as also institutions like SIDBI, are wholly inadequate to meet the diverse needs of the SME, spread across the length and breadth of the country. One reason for private equity funds dragging their feet in spotting the winners of tomorrow is the relatively low returns on their time and effort in grooming an SME as compared to a mid-size company. Their argument is that the management time invested in grooming the SME is almost the same if not more, even as their capacity to absorb large investments is virtually non-existent. Commercial banks who work on set parameters of lending often find the SME discipline wanting in case of accounting norms, inventories and management of working capital. The cost of zeroing in on the next super-star inevitably acts as a deterrent to private equity firms who prefer to stick to the traditional path. And nowadays all the erstwhile venture capital funds prefer to act like Private Equity (PE) funds. Fear of private equity firms asking for a controlling interest is also one of the factors dissuading promoters from actively seeking private equity funds. Given this scenario, it is important to create an environment and build an infrastructure which allows SMEs to access risk capital. Given that these companies cannot meet the rigorous listing criteria of the larger stock exchanges, at least till such time as they are able to grow to a sizeable level, there is a need to provide an alternate mechanism/ window for the SME. Earlier attempts made by both BSE and NSE have failed to address the Problem. On both exchanges save for the top few hundred stocks, illiquidity is rampant across more than half of the listed companies. Against this background, the government’s initiative to set up a separate stock exchange for SME is indeed a laudable step. SEBI’s latest proposal defining the framework and requirement of Rs. 100 crore net worth with nation-wide trading terminals will ensure that only serious players will enter the fray. The condition that the clearing function must be performed by a recognized clearing house will also provide a degree of comfort to investors venturing on this exchange. The minimum trading lot of Rs. 1 lakh is meant to ensure that only investors who are well aware of the risks involved participate. All major exchanges in the world have a separate window for smaller companies. London Stock Exchange’s Alternate Investment Market (AIM) is gaining popularity amongst Indian companies. Nasdaq, NYSE and even Japan have similar windows for smaller companies which are subsequently allowed to graduate to the main markets once they grow in size. The problem of creating liquidity in shares is addressed by Nomads on the AIM market who are required to give a two-way quote, like the jobbers on the BSE when the open cry system was in vogue SEBI which currently mandates either an order driven or quote driven system could learn from the international experience of specialized brokers for SMEs listed on the exchanges. Given the spread of the SMEs across the country at least three or four exchanges will be needed. A geographic spread would also help in getting regional investors as those who are well-versed with the development in the regions to invest in the companies from those regions. Further, competition amongst exchanges would also ensure quality of services and inculcate discipline amongst the management. One of the reasons cited for OTCEI failure was inadequate attention by the management in developing the infrastructure. Remember, OTCEI was set up at a time when the infrastructure for electronic trading was just not there. While modalities for improving the functionality can be changed along the way, the important thing for SEBI is to do two things. First, spell out the funding requirements for any SME to list. It has to be simple, quick and cheap. In the UK licensed Nomads are authorized to clear documents, satisfying themselves that there is adequate disclosure. And second, to provide a time-frame for the exchanges to start operations as quickly as possible.Question Which of the following factors lead(s) to SMEs being starved of capital? I. Geographically they are scattered across the country. II. They do not have the capacity to absorb large investments. III. The fear that private investors could ask for controlling stake in the company, dissuades SMEs from seeking their funds.  
A
I only
B
I and II only
C
III only
D
I, II and III
Question 84
The government has taken the initiative to set up a separate stock exchange for SMEs mainly because  
A
this step will be lauded by one and all.
B
it is important to create an environment which encourages SMEs to access risk capital for growth.
C
SMEs prefer their own stock exchange, rather than go with the bigger companies.
D
all major exchanges in the world have done the same.
Question 85
OTCEI, the failed stock exchange venture, was set up in  
A
UK only
B
India only
C
India, USA, UK and Japan
D
Not clear from the passage
Question 86
Which of the following captions would be most appropriate for this passage?  
A
Funding the Smaller Sector.
B
SEBI Recommendations – The Way Forward for SMEs.
C
Smaller Stocks vs. Larger Stocks.
D
Globalisation of Stock Markets.
Question 87
Which of the following statements is not implied in the passage?  
A
SMEs are contributing significantly to the growth of the economy.
B
All major stock exchanges have a separate window for SMEs.
C
Liquidity for SME stocks is assured in BSE and NSE.
D
SEBI is well equipped to define the way forward as regards setting up of separate exchanges for SMEs.
Question 88
                                                                            PASSAGE – III Among the natural resources that can be called upon in national plans for development, possibly, the most important is human labour. Since the English language suffers from a certain weakness in its ability to describe groups composed of both male and female members, this is usually described as ‘manpower’. Without a productive labour force, including effective leadership and intelligent middle management no amount foreign assistance or natural wealth can ensure successful development and modernization. The manpower for development during the next quarter century will come from the world’s present population of infants, children and adolescents. But we are not sure that they will be equal to the task. Will they have the health, the education, the skills, the socio-cultural attitude essential for the responsibilities of development? For fat too may of them the answer is no. The reason is basic. A child’s most critical years, with regard to physical, intellectual, social and emotional development, are those before he reaches five years of age. During those critical formative years he is cared for almost exclusively by his mother, and in many parts of the world the mother may not have the capacity to raise a superior child. She is incapable of doing so because of her own poor health, ignorance and lack of status and recognition of social and legal rights, and economic parity of independence. One essential factor has been overlooked or ignored – the role of women. Development will be handicapped as long as women remain second-class citizens, uneducated, without any voice in family or community decisions, without legal or economic status, married when they are still practically children, and thereafter producing one baby after another, often only to see half of them die before they are of school going age. We can enhance development by improving “woman power”, by giving women the opportunity to develop themselves. Statistics show that the average family size increases in inverse ratio to the mother’s years of education – is lowest among college graduates, highest among those with only primary school training or no education. Malnutrition is most frequent in large families and increases in frequency with each additional sibling. The principle established seems that an educated mother has healthier and more intelligent children, and that this is related to the fact that she has fewer children. The tendency of educated, upper-class mothers to have fewer children exists even without access to contraceptive services. The educational level of women is significant also because it has a direct influence upon their chances of employment; and the number of employed women in a country’s total labour force has a direct bearing on both the Gross National Product and the disposable income of the individual family. Disposable income, especially in the hands of women, influences food purchasing and therefore the nutritional status of the family. The fact that this additional income derives from the paid employment of women provides a logical incentive to restrict the size of the family.Question Among the natural resources that can be called upon in national plans for development  
A
the most important is certainly human labour.
B
the most important is possibly human labour.
C
the least developed is certainly human labour.
D
the least developed is undoubtedly human labour.
Question 89
Without a productive labour force, including effective leadership and intelligent middle management,  
A
no productive work is possible
B
entrepreneurs will incur heavy losses.
C
economic development will not keep pace with nationalist movements.
D
no amount of foreign assistance or natural wealth can ensure successful development and modernization.
Question 90
The manpower development during the next quarter-century  
A
will be adversely affected by the threat of war.
B
will come from the world’s present population of infants, children and adolescents.
C
will be well taken care of by the current emphasis on free education for women.
D
will be adversely affected by the country’s economic losses and political instability.
Question 91
The statement made by the writer is that  
A
the world’s present population of infants, children and adolescents is very healthy.
B
the world’s present population of infants, children and adolescents is very sickly.
C
the world’s present population of infants, children and adolescents may not be equal to the task.
D
the world’s present population of infants, children and adolescents is likely to become morally bankrupt.
Question 92
The writer directly or indirectly made three of the following statements; which is the one he didn’t make?  
A
Many of the world’s present population of infants, children and adolescents will not have the health, the education, the skills, the socio-cultural attitudes essential for the responsibilities of development.
B
A child’s most critical years with regard to physical, intellectual, social and emotional development, are those before he reaches five years of age.
C
Development will be handicapped as long as women remain second-class citizens.
D
In the advanced countries of the world women are regarded as first-class citizens but in developing countries they are third-class citizens.
Question 93
                                                                             PASSAGE – IV   Globalisation, liberalization and free market are some of the most significant modern trends in economy. Most economists in our country seem captivated by the spell of the free market. Consequently, nothing seems good or normal that does not accord with the requirements of the free market. A price that is determined by the seller or, for that matter, established by anyone other than the aggregate of consumers seems pernicious. Accordingly, it requires a major act of will to think of price-fixing as both normal and having a valuable economic function. In fact, price-fixing is normal in the industrialized societies because the industrial system itself provides, an effortless consequence of its own development, the price-fixing that it requires. Modern industrial planning requires and rewards great size. Hence, a comparatively small number of large firms will be competing for the same group of consumers. That each large firm will act with consideration of its own needs and thus avoid selling its products for more than what its competitors charges is commonly recognized by advocates of free-market economic theories. But each large firm will also act with full consideration of the needs that it has in common with the other large firms competing for the same customers. Each large firm will thus avoid significant price-cutting, because price-cutting will be prejudicial to the common interest in a stable demand for products. Most economists do not see price-fixing when it occurs because they expect it to be brought about by a number of explicit agreements among large firms; it is not. Moreover, some economists argue that allowing the free-market to operate without interference is the most efficient method of establishing prices in all cases, except for the economics of non-socialist countries. Most of these economics employ international price-fixing, usually in an overt fashion.  Formal price-fixing by cartels and informal price-fixing by agreements covering the members of an industry are common. Were there something peculiarly efficient about the free market and inefficient about price-fixing, the countries that have avoided the first and used the second would have suffered drastically in their economic development. There is no indication that they have. Socialist industry also works within a framework of controlled prices. In the early 1970s, the Soviet Union began to give firms and industries some flexibility in adjusting prices that a more informal evolution has accorded the capitalist system. Economists in the USA have hailed the change as a return to the free market. But the Soviet firms were not in favour of the prices established by a free market, over which they exercised little influence. Rather, Soviet firms acquired some power to fix prices.Question The authors primary objective of writing the passage seems to  
A
belie the popular belief that the free-market helps enhance development of industrial societies.
B
advocate that price-fixing is unavoidable and it is beneficial to the economy of, any industrialized society.
C
explain the methodology of fixing price to stabilize free-market.
D
prove that price-fixing and free-market are compatible and mutually beneficial to industrialized societies.
Question 94
Which of the following statements I, II and/ or III is/are TRUE in the context of the information given in the passage? The information in the passage is helpful to I. know some of the ways in which prices can be fixed. II. identify the products for which price-fixing can be more beneficial. III. differentiate between the economies of various countries.  
A
Only I
B
Only II
C
Only III
D
Only I and II
Question 95
Considering the literal meaning and connotations of the words used in the passage, the author’s attitude towards “most economists” can best be described as  
A
derogatory and antagonistic.
B
impartial and unbiased.
C
spiteful and envious.
D
critical and condescending.
Question 96
The author feels that price fixed by seller seems pernicious because  
A
people don’t have faith in large firms.
B
people don’t want the Government to fix prices.
C
most economists believe that consumers should determine prices.
D
most economists believe that no one group should determine prices.
Question 97
Which of the following statements is definitely true in the context of the passage?  
A
A profitable result of economic development.
B
An inevitable result of the industrial system.
C
The joint result of a number of carefully organized decisions.
D
A phenomenon uncommon to industrialized societies.
Question 98
                                                           PASSAGE – V We call a man irrational when he acts in passion – when he cuts off his nose to spite his face. He is irrational because he forgets that by indulging the desire that he happens to feel most strongly about at the moment, he will thwart other desires which, in the long run, are more important to him. If men were rational, they would take a more correct view of their own interest than they do at present; and if all men acted from enlightened self-interest, the world would be a paradise in comparison with what it is now. I do not maintain that there is nothing better than self-interest as a motive to action; but I do maintain that self-interest, like altruism, is better when it is enlightened than when it is unenlightened. In an ordered community it is very rarely to a man’s interest to do anything which is very harmful to others. The less rational a man is, more often he will fail to perceive how what injures others would also injure him, because hatred or envy will blind him. Therefore, although I do not pretend that enlightened self-interest is the highest morality, I do maintain that, if it became common, it would make the world an immeasurably better place than it is. Rationality, in practice, may be defined as the habit of remembering all our relevant desires, and not only the one that happens at the moment to be strongest. Like rationality in opinion, it is a matter of degree. Complete rationality is no doubt an unattainable idea, but so long as we continue to classify some men as lunatics it is clear that we think some men more rational than others. I believe that all solid progress in the world consists of an increase in rationality, both practical and theoretical. To preach an altruistic morality appears to me somewhat useless, because it will appeal only to those who already have altruistic desires. But to peach rationality is somewhat different, since rationality helps us to realize our own desires on the whole, whatever they may be, a man is rational in proportion as his intelligence informs and controls his desires. I believe that the control of our acts by our intelligence is ultimately what is of most importance, and that alone will make social life remain possible as science increases the means at our disposal for injuring each other. Education, the press, politics, religion-in a word, all the great forces in the would-are at present on the side of irrationality-they are in the hands of men who flatter King Demos in order to lead him astray. The remedy does not lie in anything heroically cataclysmic, but in the efforts of individuals towards a more sane and balanced view of our relations to our neighbours and to the world. It is to intelligence, increasingly side-spread that we must look for the solution of the ills from which our world is suffering.Question What is the central idea of the passage?  
A
The problems of the world can best be solved by rationality and enlightened self interest.
B
Altruism and rationality are the main indicators of intelligence.
C
Altruism can make this world heaven.
D
Man is absolutely irrational.
Question 99
What is the author’s attitude to modern development in science and communications?  
A
Cynical about their use.
B
Sceptical about the uses they put to.
C
One of cautious acceptance.
D
One of concern about their harmful potential.
Question 100
Rationality, according to the passage, means mainly  
A
having regard for others.
B
intelligent control of one’s desires.
C
the ability to cultivate a balanced view of one’s surroundings.
D
power to resist yielding to strong passions.
Question 101
The author feels that it is impractical to appeal to altruism because  
A
not all people are altruistic by nature.
B
altruism is weaker than rationality.
C
altruism is more refined than rationality.
D
None of these.
Question 102
‘The King Demos’ refers to  
A
Populace
B
Politician
C
Scientist
D
Despot
Question 103
                                                               PASSAGE – VI  At the time Jane Austen’s novels were published – between 1811 and 1818 – English literature was not part of any academic curriculum. In addition, fiction was under strenuous attack. Certain religious and political groups felt novels had the power to make so-called immoral characters so interesting that young readers would identify with them; these groups also considered novels to be of little practical use. Even Coleridge, certainly no literary reactionary, spoke for many when he asserted that “novel-reading occasions the destruction of the mind’s powers.” These attitudes towards novels help explain why Austen received little attention from early nineteenth-century literary critics. (In any case, a novelist published anonymously, as Austen was, would not be likely to receive much critical attention). The literary response that was accorded to her, however, was often as incisive as twentieth-century criticism. In his attack in 1816 on novelistic portrayals “outside of ordinary experience”, for example, Scott made an insightful remark about the merits of Austen’s fiction. Her novels, wrote Scott, “present to the reader an accurate and exact picture of ordinary everyday people and places, reminiscent of seventeenth-century Flemish painting.” Scott did not use the word ‘realism’, but he undoubtedly used a standard of realistic probability in judging novels. The critic Whately did not use the word ‘realism’ either, but he expressed agreement with Scott’s evaluation, and went on to suggest the possibilities for moral instruction in what we have called Austen’s ‘realistic method’. Her characters, wrote Whately, are persuasive agents for moral truth since they are ordinary persons “so clearly evoked that we feel an interest in their fate as if it were our own.” Moral instruction, explained Whately, is more likely to be effective when conveyed through recognisably human and interesting characters than when imparted by a sermonizing narrator. Whately especially praised Austen’s ability to create characters who “mingle goodness and villainy, weakness and virtue, as in life they are always mingled”. Whately concluded his remarks by comparing Austen’s art of characterization to Dickens’, stating his preference for Austen’s. Yet, the response of nineteenth-century literary critics to Austen was not always so laudatory, and often anticipated the reservations of twentieth-century critics. An example of such a response was Lewes’ complaint in 1859 that Austen’s range of subjects and characters was too narrow. Praising her verisimilitude, Lewes added that, nonetheless, her focus was too often only upon the unlofty and the common place. (Twentieth-century Marxists, on the other hand, were to complain about what they saw as her exclusive emphasis on a lofty upper-middle class). In any case, having been rescued by some literary critics from neglect and indeed gradually lionized by them, Austen steadily reached, by the mid-nineteenth century, the enviable pinnacle of being considered controversial.Question The passage supplies information to suggest that the religious and political groups (mentioned in the third sentence) and Whately might have agreed that a novel  
A
has little practical use.
B
has the ability to influence the moral values of its readers.
C
is of utmost interest to readers when representing ordinary human characters.
D
should not be read by young readers.
Question 104
The author quotes Coleridge in order to  
A
refute the literary opinions of certain religious and political groups.
B
make a case for the inferiority of novel to poetry.
C
give an example of a writer who was not a literary reactionary.
D
indicate how widespread the attack on novels was in the early nineteenth century.
Question 105
The passage suggests that twentieth-century Marxists would have admired Jane Austen’s novels more if the novels, as the Marxists understood them, had  
A
described the values of upper-middle class society.
B
avoided moral instruction and sermonising.
C
depicted ordinary society in a more flattering light.
D
portrayed characters from more than one class of society.
Question 106
It can be inferred from the passage that Whately found Dickens’ characters to be  
A
especially interesting to young readers.
B
ordinary person in recognisably human situations.
C
less liable than Jane Austen’s characters to have a realistic mixture of moral qualities.
D
more often villainous and weak than virtuous and good.
Question 107
Directions (Questions 107 – 110): Sentences given in the each question, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. A. There was a pile of pumpkins sitting on a flatbed truck, and both Allen and Bush tried to hoist an aesthetically pleasing pumpkin by the stem. B. Both stems snapped. “If you break it, you pay for it, Mr. President”, said Richard Keil of Bloomberg News, echoing Colin Powell’s famous rule at the outset of the Iraq war. C. Everything seemed to be going wrong for Bush last week, even the metaphors. D. On the way to the Allen fund raiser we stopped for a photo at a picturesque farm stand outside Richmond. E. Bush didn’t seem to get the joke “I suppose you’re right”, he said, and tried to buy the broken pumpkin.  
A
ABEDC
B
BECAD
C
CDABE
D
ABECD
Question 108
A. We all know that exercise is good for you. B. Staying physically active helps keep your heart healthy and your muscles strong, and in cancer patients it has even been shown to ward off relapse. C. Now a series of independently conducted studies on the effects of exercise in healthy older adults, published on Monday in the Archives of Internal Medicine, confirms that. D. Logging time at the gym not only helps maintain good health but may even prevent the onset of chronic diseases, such as heart diseases, osteoarthritis and dementia.  
A
ABCD
B
DABC
C
CDAB
D
CDBA
Question 109
A. Borderlines are the patients psychologists fear most.B. They are power connected to the people close to them and terrified by the possibility of losing them yet attach those people so unexpectedly that they often ensure the every abandonment they fear. C. When they want to hold they claw instead. D. Borderline patients seem to have no internal governor; they are capable of deep love and profound rage almost simultaneously. E. As many as 75% hurt themselves, and approximately 10% commit suicide, an extraordinarily high suicide rate.  
A
AEDBC
B
CAEDB
C
BDCAE
D
DBCAE
Question 110
A. He read it in an oddly methodical way.B. The moment he had laid aside the body of the paper a masseuse stepped into the room. C. First he tore off Page One and the editorial page of the bulky newspaper. D. Rapidly, his marble-bright blue eyes took in every story. E. When the rite was over, he sat up, and as the masseuse worked at the fingers of his right hand, stiff from a palm affliction, Sulzberger picked up the detached Page One of the Times in his left.  
A
EACDB
B
ADEBC
C
CBDEA
D
ACBED
Question 111
Directions (Q. Nos. 111-115): Each question consists of sentences which are divided into four parts, numbered (1) through (4). Only one part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard written English. Identify that part in each of the sentences which contains the error. A. Her acceptance of speechB. was well received C. eliciting thunderous applause D. at several points  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 112
A. An oppressive solemnityB. and not the festive mood C. one might have expected D. characterized the mood by the gathering  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 113
A. All aspiring artists mustB. struggle by the conflict C. between faith in their own talentD. and knowledge that very few are great enough to succeed.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 114
A. Despite some bad news,B. Michel’s stature was not diminished C. and her fans or critics D. were unanimous in appreciating her work  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 115
A. Jazz is an American art formB. which was now flourishing in Europe C. through the efforts of expatriates D. in France, Scandinavia and Germany  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 116
Directions (Q. Nos. 116-120): In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. He puts on airs and claims himself to be omniscient.  
A
ignorant
B
uneducated
C
unqualified
D
backward
Question 117
The committee set about making provisional arrangements for the annual conference.  
A
unconditional
B
abiding
C
permanent
D
lasting
Question 118
The priest would not allow anyone to desecrate the sanctity of the temple.  
A
desist
B
integrate
C
intensify
D
consecrate
Question 119
I think you should undertake this job; it would really be a profitable venture for you.  
A
refrain
B
leave
C
conceal
D
retrieve
Question 120
I think it would be better if this paragraph is eliminated.  
A
added
B
improved
C
deleted
D
shortened
Question 121
Directions (Q. Nos. 121-124): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives choose the one which is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence. Parents should cultivate in their children the habit of helping others.  
A
propagate
B
sprout
C
create
D
foster
Question 122
Scientific knowledge is an intoxicating draught, and it may be one in which the human race is unable to sustain.  
A
drink
B
product
C
disease
D
process
Question 123
He is deluding himself with false hopes.  
A
satisfying
B
entertaining
C
misleading
D
assuring
Question 124
The obstacles seem to be insurmountable, but no one should doubt what this fearless woman can accomplish.  
A
to easy to achieve
B
too difficult to overcome
C
too tail and too high
D
too trivial to attract attention
Question 125
Directions (Q. Nos. 125-128): In each of the following questions, out of the given group of wording choose the mis-spelt one.           A. Impression            B. Competition          C. Miscellanies          D. Reproach  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 126
        A. Exonerate               B. Quatecmary         C. Hurricare                  D. Surveillance  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 127
         A. Incidently               B. Publicity          C. Codly                       D. Realy    
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 128
         A. Instructor                B. Grammer          C. Carrier                      D. Organiser  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 129
Directions (Q. Nos. 129-131): In each of the following question an idiomatic expression/ Proverb has been given followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idioms/Proverb. To read between the lines  
A
To concentrate
B
To read carefully
C
To suspect
D
To grasp the hidden meaning
Question 130
To flog a dead horse  
A
To act in a foolish way
B
To waste one’s efforts
C
To revive interest in an old subject
D
To revive old memories
Question 131
To pay one back in the same com  
A
To provoke a person to quarrel
B
To offer another polite attention
C
To retaliate
D
To give a word of encouragement or praise to another
Question 132
Directions (Q. Nos. 132-136): In each of the following five items you have six sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentences of the paragraph are in their proper places at S1 and S6. The four middle sentences, that should occupy positions S2 to S5, have been jumbled and named P, Q, R and S. You should find the proper sequence of these four sentences that will reconstruct the original six-sentences paragraph. S1: The distinction between state or sovereign and government is developed by Rousseau with utmost exactness and accuracy. S6: Collectively they may be called ‘prence’ or ‘magistracy’. P: While ‘state’ denotes the community as a whole, created by social pact and manifesting itself in supreme general will, ‘government’ denotes merely the individual or group of individuals that is designated by the community to carry into effect the sovereign will. Q: Government, to Rousseau, means executive power. R: The individuals, to whom this power is assigned are the officer or the agents of the sovereign. S: The government is created not by any contract but by a decree of the sovereign, and its function is in no sense to make but only to administer law.  
A
RPSQ
B
QSPR
C
SQRP
D
PSQR
Question 133
S1: Work with retarded children, in particular, involves superhuman patience and long-delayed rewards. S6: After five years, the girl finally began to simle, when her foster grandparents entered to room. P: Another woman faithfully spent two hours a day, five days a week, with a bed-ridden retarded girl. Q: It was three years before the girl made her first cut in a piece of paper. R: The girl had never before responded to, or recognised anyone. S: One woman decided to teach a young brain-damaged girl how to use scissors.  
A
QSPR
B
RQSP
C
SQPR
D
PSQR
Question 134
S1: A workman would not willingly have worked in such a place. S6: However that may be, he offered nothing else and the couple, very pleased at not being put out into the street with their material thanked him. P: Marie and Pierre, nevertheless resigned themselves to it. Q: It was so untempting, so miserable that nobody thought of refusing them the use of it. R: The shed had one advantage. S: The director of the school regretted that he had nothing better to offer.  
A
PQRS
B
PRQS
C
QRPS
D
QSPR
Question 135
S1: Suddenly there was a loud knocking on the other gate. S6: Lady Macbeth took her husband by the arm and dragged him away to their own chamber. P: Lady Macbeth at once saw that this meant danger. Q: Macbeth’s hands were also covered with blood. R: The knocking grew louder. S: If any one saw them in the hall at this hour of the night, they would be suspected of murder.  
A
PQRS
B
PRQS
C
PSQR
D
PSRQ
Question 136
S1: Once there was an occasion for me to motor drown to Calcutta from a place a hundred miles away. S6: In a hot country, where travellers constantly need water and where water supply grows scantly in summer, the villagers consider it their duty to offer water to those who need it. P: In fifteen other villages the same thing happened. Q: It proved quite a task for him, but when we offered him reward, poor though he was, he refused to accept it. R: Something wrong with the mechanism made it necessary for us to have repeated supply of water almost every half hour. S: At the first village where we were compelled to stop, we asked the help of a man to find water for us.   
A
RSQP
B
PSRQ
C
QRPS
D
SQPR
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General Proficiency Test (GPT) - Postgraduate - Mock Test

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Question 1
                                                                           PASSAGE I The strength of the electronics industry in Japan is the Japanese ability to organize production and marketing rather than their achievement in original research. The British are generally recognized as a far more inventive collection of individuals but never seem able to exploit what they invent. There are many examples from the TSR2, the Hovercraft the high speed train and Sinclair scooter to the Triumph BSA and Norton motorbikes which all prove this sad rule. The Japanese were able to exploit their strengths in marketing and development many years ago, and their success was the first either not understood in the west or was dismissed as something which could only have been achieved by unscrupulous tactics. For many years Japanese goods had a reputation for shoddiness not always undeserved and it was felt they could only have been produced at their low price, so far from where they were sold because they were cheap copies of other people’s ideas churned out by a workhouse which was dedicated to hard grind above all else.Question The said rule mentioned in this passage refers to:  
A
the inability of the Japanese to be inventive like the British
B
the inability of the British to be industrious like the Japanese
C
the lack of variety in Japanese inventions
D
the poorer marketing ability of the British
Question 2
According to the passage, prosperity in industry depends upon:  
A
productivity
B
inventiveness
C
marketing ability
D
official patronage
Question 3
The strength of a country’s industry depends upon:  
A
original research
B
international cooperation
C
adjudicate work force
D
electronic development
Question 4
The TSR2, the Hovercraft the high speed train, the Sinclair scooter etc. are the symbols of:  
A
Japanese success
B
British failure
C
British success
D
Japanese failure
Question 5
The main theme of this passage is:  
A
electronic industry in Japan
B
industrial comparison between Japan and Britain
C
the role of marketing efficiency in industrial prosperity
D
the importance of original research in industry
Question 6
                                                                         PASSAGE IIIt is difficult to reconcile the ideas of different schools of thought on the question of education. Some people maintain that pupils at school should concentrate on a narrow range of subjects which will benefit them directly in their subsequent careers. Others contend that they should study a wide range of subjects so that they have not only the specialised knowledge necessary for their chosen careers but also sound general knowledge about the world they will have to work and live in. Supporters of the first theory state that the greatest contributions to civilisation are made by those who are most expert in their trade of profession. Those on the other side say that, unless they have a broad general education, the experts will be too narrow in their outlook to have sympathy with their fellows or a proper sense of responsibility towards humanity as a whole.Question ‘Schools of thought’ can be explained as:  
A
groups of people whose job is to think.
B
groups of people who are schooled to think.
C
groups of people who study in a particular school thoughtfully.
D
groups of people having the same ideas but with different perception on a particular subject.
Question 7
Broad general knowledge is necessary because:  
A
specialisation is incomplete without it.
B
without it no one would get a job.
C
it teaches us about different things.
D
it broadens one’s outlook.
Question 8
The idea of the first school of thought in the passage is that:  
A
student should concentrate on studies
B
students should not undertake any specialized work.
C
students should study all the subjects they want to.
D
students should study a few subjects that will help them in their profession.
Question 9
Supporters of the first theory say that:  
A
experts have contributed most to progress in the modern world.
B
people with general knowledge have contributed to civilisation.
C
experts have done nothing to help mankind.
D
people with general knowledge are more useful than experts.
Question 10
According to the second school of thought, education will not be very effective if pupils:  
A
have inadequate knowledge of their own work.
B
do not have a wide general education.
C
ignore the study of fine arts.
D
have nothing but general knowledge.
Question 11
                                                                PASSAGE III Gandhiji had to travel by train from Durban to Pretoria in connection with his job. Once while travelling by train, he was asked by the white passengers to leave the first class compartment and shift to the van compartment. He refused to do so. Thereafter, he was pushed forcibly out of the compartment and his luggage was thrown on the platform. It was winter and he kept shivering all night. He did not go to the waiting room because the white men sleeping there might insult him further. This event was a turning point in the life of Gandhiji and he decided to stay back in South Africa and fight against this blatant injustice.Question The white people asked Gandhiji to abandon the first class compartment because:  
A
they wanted to annoy him.
B
they wanted to avenge themselves on Gandhiji.
C
they treated Indians as inferior to them.
D
they were looking for a chance to talk to him.
Question 12
Why was he thrown out of the compartment? Because:  
A
he misbehaved with the whites.
B
they wanted him to spend the night in the waiting room.
C
they wanted to insult him.
D
he refused to shift to the van compartment.
Question 13
Why did he not go to the waiting room to spend the night?  
A
The room was unclean.
B
He wanted to sleep in the open.
C
He was badly hurt and so couldn’t move to the room.
D
He feared that the white men there might insult him further.
Question 14
‘This event was a turning point in the life of Gandhiji.’ The event being talked about here is:  
A
Gandhiji’s being ill treated by the whites
B
Gandhiji’s spending a night on the platform
C
Gandhiji’s travel by a train
D
Gandhiji’s staying back in Africa
Question 15
Gandhiji stayed back in South Africa:  
A
to avenge himself on the whites who had insulted him.
B
because his work was still not complete.
C
to fight against racial discrimination in Africa.
D
to build up an army and fight against the white people.
Question 16
                                                                             PASSAGE IVAlthough a smiling face often disguises the mind and heart of a villain, an indiscriminate generalization of this phenomenon will do injustice to the innocent children whose faces bloom like flowers.Question Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the world ‘disguises’ as used in the sentence?  
A
Proves
B
Hides
C
Conceals
D
Reveals
Question 17
The intention of the author seems to be:  
A
to forcefully defend the kind acts of villains.
B
to point out to an exception to the general rule.
C
to give justice to the generous actions of everyone.
D
to argue in favour of children who are sometimes guilty.
Question 18
The author of the sentence accepts the fact that:  
A
the faces of the villains are never smiling.
B
the faces of innocent children are as pleasing as the flowers in bloom.
C
the faces of innocent children disguise ill acts.
D
an indiscriminate generalisation is justifiable in this case.
Question 19
Which of the following is most opposite of the word ‘indiscriminate’ as used in this sentence?  
A
Selective
B
Broad
C
Conspicuous
D
Promiscuous
Question 20
The author feels that an indiscriminate generalisation of the phenomenon:  
A
would prevent villains from committing ill acts.
B
may lead good people to involve in ill actions.
C
would do justice to the children who are guilty.
D
would brand all people with smiling faces as villains.
Question 21
                                                                        PASSAGE VIt is common knowledge that the root cause of our backwardness in most fields is illiteracy. Campaigns for the eradication of this drawback gathered momentum in the decades after Independence. The results are, as expected, dramatic. However, while the percentage of literacy in India is going up, the number of illiterates has also been increasing, which is really incredible. Thus, according to the 1991 census figures, there were 503 million illiterates in the country, 30 million more than in 1981. During the same period, the percentage of literacy went up from 34 to 39 per cent. There is no need of any sophisticated technique to explain the cause of this paradox, as it is obviously the result of the rapid growth of population. The rapid growth of population has outpaced whatever little progress had been achieved in literacy. For instance, from 1971 to 1981, literacy increased at an annual average rate of 0.7 per cent, while the country’s population grew by 2.15 per cent every year. In the following decade, the average rate of annual increase in literacy was 0.95 per cent, whereas the population grew by almost 2.85 per cent every year during that decade. But population explosion is not entirely responsible for the growing number of illiterates. The apathy of most states in failing to tackle the problem of adult illiteracy is also partly to blame. Till now, they have shown little awareness of the magnitude of the problem. Moreover, follow-up measures to prevent neo-literates from relapsing into illiteracy are just as important as the initial adult literacy campaigns. In this case too, the State Education authorities are negligent. Not sufficient provision has been made for ‘continued education’. This can be done by setting up more rural libraries, adult schools and correspondence courses.Question Which of the following appears unbelievable, according to the passage?  
A
Growing illiteracy is owing to non-availability of reading facilities to rural masses.
B
Sufficient provision for continued education has not been made.
C
The increase in literacy percentage and also the increase in number of illiterates.
D
Population explosion is the only reason for increase in the number of illiterates.
Question 22
The term ‘neo-literate’ as used in the passage refers to a person who:  
A
is not literate.
B
has newly become literate.
C
is a little literate.
D
is a literate with no school education.
Question 23
In the passage, the rapid growth of population has been attributed to:  
A
illiteracy
B
apathy of government officials.
C
want of continued education.
D
None of these
Question 24
Which of the following statements is/are not true in the context of the passage?I. An effective check on population growth is the only solution for attainment of full literacy. II. The cause of the paradox mentioned in the passage can be explained by using sophisticated techniques. III. Adequate number of libraries and adult schools are not available in our country.  
A
Only I
B
Only II
C
Only III
D
I and II
Question 25
Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘outpaced’ as used in the passage?  
A
Surpassed
B
Nullified
C
Ruled out
D
Spoiled
Question 26
Which of the following has been referred to as a paradox?  
A
The literacy percentage increases and the number of illiterates decreases.
B
The literacy percentage increases in proportion to the rate of increase in population.
C
The government is sensitive to the problem only at the planning stage but not at the implementation stage.
D
The literacy percentage and the number of illiterates are both increasing.
Question 27
According to the passage, the problem could have been tackled by which one or more of the following measures? I. Checking the growth of population. II. Making the adult literacy campaign more effective. III. Providing continued education to neo-literates.     
A
I and III
B
I and II
C
II and III
D
All of these
Question 28
Which of the following is as important as the literacy campaign?  
A
Checking the rapid growth of population
B
Starting correspondence courses and providing reading facilities
C
Awareness of the magnitude of the problem of illiteracy
D
Making sufficient provision for continued education
Question 29
‘Eradication’, as used in the passage means:  
A
removal
B
destruction
C
starvation
D
evaporation
Question 30
Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?  
A
Continued education programmes are now adequately funded.
B
All the State governments have now fully realised the problem of illiteracy.
C
Literacy campaigns in the pre-Independence period were more fruitful than the later ones.
D
Literacy campaign achieved desired results in the post-Independence period.
Question 31
Directions (Question No. 31-33): In each of the following questions, a number/letter series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 2, 5, 9, ?, 20, 27  
A
14
B
16
C
18
D
24
Question 32
28, 33, 31, 36 ?, 39  
A
32
B
34
C
38
D
40
Question 33
D-4, F-6, H-8, J-10, ?  
A
K-12
B
M-14
C
L-12
D
N-14
Question 34
Directions (Question No. 34-37): Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.      A. Zebra         B. Lion      C. Tiger                D. Horse  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 35
    A. January           B. May    C. July                       D. November  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 36
       A. Violet        B. Blue        C. Green          D. White  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 37
     A. Run           B. Walk      C. Think          D. Jump  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 38
Directions (Question No. 38-39): Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?       A. Happy      B. Gloomy        C. Lively         D. Cheerful  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 39
      A. 42          B. 98       C. 20            D. 31  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 40
If in a certain code, SWITCH is written as TVJSDG, which word would be written as CQFZE?  
A
BARED
B
BRAED
C
BREAD
D
BRADE
Question 41
In a certain language: (a) ‘FOR’ stands for ‘Old is Gold’, (b) ‘ROT’, stands for ‘Gold is pure’, (c) ‘ROM’ stands for ‘Gold is Costly’; How will “Pure Old Gold is Costly” be written”?  
A
TFROM
B
FOTRM
C
FTORM
D
TOMRF
Question 42
A river flows west to east and on the way turns left and goes in a semi-circle round a hillock, and then turns left at right angles. In which direction is the river finally flowing?  
A
West
B
East
C
North
D
South
Question 43
You go North, turn right, then right again and then go to the left. In which direction are you now?  
A
North
B
South
C
East
D
West
Question 44
Deepak starts walking straight towards east. After walking 75 metres, he turns to the left and walks 25 metres straight. Again he turns to the left, walks a distance of 40 metres straight, again he turns to the left and walks a distance of 25 metres. How far is he from the starting point? 
A
25 metres
B
50 metres
C
140 metres
D
None of these
Question 45
Kashish goes 30 metres North, then turns right and walks 40 metres, then again turns right and walks 20 metres, then again turns right and walks 40 metres. How many metres is he from his original position?  
A
0
B
10
C
20
D
40
Question 46
I walked 18 km towards North, then turned left and having walked another 4 km, I turned right and walked for 12 km more. How far have I walked from the starting point and in which direction?  
A
8 km North
B
10 km West
C
16 km South
D
34 km North
Question 47
If the letters in the word UNDERTAKING are rearranged in the alphabetical order, which one will be in the middle in order after the rearrangement?  
A
G
B
I
C
K
D
None of these
Question 48
Which letter in the word CYBERNETICS occupies the same position as it does in the English alphabet?  
A
C
B
E
C
I
D
T
Question 49
Directions (Question No. 49-50): In each of these questions, find out which of the letter-series follows the given rule. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is two.  
A
MPSVYBE
B
QSVYZCF
C
SVZCGJN
D
ZCGKMPR
Question 50
The group of letters which do not contain more than two vowels:  
A
BDEJOLY
B
JKAPIXU
C
PRAQEOS
D
ZILERAM
Question 51
If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the third, the fourth and the eleventh letter of the word ‘CONTROVERSIAL’. The middle letter of the word is:  
A
N
B
I
C
S
D
T
Question 52
The positions of how many digits in the number 321465987 will remain same when the digits are arranged in ascending order?  
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
Question 53
If the day before yesterday was Saturday, what day will fall on the day after tomorrow?  
A
Friday
B
Thursday
C
Wednesday
D
Tuesday
Question 54
If 30th January 2003 was Thursday, what was the day on 2nd March, 2003?  
A
Tuesday
B
Thursday
C
Saturday
D
Sunday
Question 55
A number is greater than 3 but less than 8. Also, it is greater than 6 but less than 10. The number is:  
A
5
B
6
C
7
D
8
Question 56
How many days will there be from 26th January, 2004 to 15th May, 2004 (both days included)?  
A
110
B
111
C
112
D
None of these
Question 57
Which two months in a year have the same calendar?  
A
Jane, October
B
April, November
C
October, December
D
None of these
Question 58
Directions (Question No. 58-60): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions to decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Mark answer as A. if only Assumption I is implicit. B. if only Assumption II is implicit. C. if either Assumption I or II is implicit. D. if neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.Question Statement: “Please note that the company will provide accommodation to only outside candidates if selected” – a condition in an advertisement. Assumptions: I. The local candidates would be having some or the other arrangement for their stay. II. The company plans to select only local candidates.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 59
Statement: Everybody loves reading adventure stories. Assumptions: I. Adventure stories are the only reading material. II. Nobody loves reading any other material.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 60
Statement: Lack of stimulation in the first four of five years of life can have adverse consequences. Assumptions: I. A great part of the development of observed intelligence occurs in the earliest years of life. II. 50 per cent of the measurable intelligence at the age of 17 is already predictable by the age of four.  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 61
Rusting of iron involves:  
A
oxidation
B
reduction
C
decomposition
D
displacement
Question 62
Which of the following vegetable proteins is considered as good as an animal protein?  
A
Soyabean protein
B
Corn protein
C
Wheat protein
D
Bengal gram protein
Question 63
The ozone shield in the atmosphere filters ultraviolet radiations coming from the sun and thus protects life on earth. If this shield is to be maintained, man must try to reduce atmospheric carbon dioxide and increase oxygen. This can be best achieved by  
A
afforestation
B
progressive farming
C
traffic control
D
population control
Question 64
Which of the following agricultural practices have been primarily responsible for pollution of our water resources? 1 Use of livestock manure 2 Use of chemical fertilisers 3 Excessive use of chemical pesticides 4. Deforestation  
A
1 and 2
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1, 3 and 4
Question 65
Who invented the Lift?  
A
J.L. Baird
B
Thomas Alva Edison
C
E.G. Otis
D
Michael Faraday
Question 66
The time period of a pendulum on the moon:  
A
becomes zero
B
increases
C
remains the same
D
decreases
Question 67
The water in an open pond remains cool even in hot summers because:  
A
of continuous evaporation of water.
B
water radiates heat more rapidly than the atmosphere.
C
water absorbs heat less rapidly than the atmosphere.
D
None of these
Question 68
Small liquid drops are spherical in shape because:  
A
of adhesion.
B
of gravitational force.
C
the liquid tends to have minimum surface area due to surface tension.
D
None of these
Question 69
Thermos flask keeps a liquid hot because:  
A
it has double walls.
B
it has silver coated walls.
C
air between the double walls is removed.
D
heat losses by conduction and radiation are largely prevented.
Question 70
The largest planet of the Solar System is:  
A
Earth
B
Mars
C
Jupiter
D
Saturn
Question 71
Niagara Falls are in:  
A
Australia
B
U.K.
C
South Africa
D
Canada
Question 72
The largest coconut producing state in India is:  
A
Karnataka
B
Andhra Pradesh
C
Kerala
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 73
The international airport in Tamil Nadu is:  
A
Palam
B
DumDum
C
Santa Cruz
D
Meenambakkam
Question 74
The ‘Cannes Award’ is given for excellence in which of the following fields?  
A
Literature
B
Films
C
Journalism
D
Economics
Question 75
The term “Tee’ is connected with:  
A
Polo
B
Golf
C
Bridge
D
Billiards
Question 76
‘Statue of Liberty’ is situated near which of the following cities?  
A
New York
B
Rome
C
Ottawa
D
London
Question 77
World Literacy Day is observed on:  
A
October 24
B
September 5
C
September 8
D
August 6
Question 78
Snake Boat Race is a popular sport of:  
A
Orissa
B
Karnataka
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Kerala
Question 79
Who is recently elected Prime Minister of Bangladesh?  
A
Sheikh Hasina
B
Begum Khaleda Zia
C
Taslima Nasreen
D
None of these
Question 80
The sportsperson to win the record highest number of individual Gold Medals in a single edition of the Olympic Games is:  
A
Daley Thomson
B
Mark Spitz
C
Carl Lewis
D
Michael Phelps
Question 81
Who is the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?  
A
Montek Singh Ahluwalia
B
P. Chidambaram
C
D. Subba Rao
D
None of these
Question 82
Who won the Man Booker Prize 2008?  
A
Aravind Adiga
B
Salman Rushdie
C
Amartya Sen
D
Arundhati Roy
Question 83
The smallest country in the world is:  
A
Monaco
B
Vatican City
C
Israel
D
Bhutan
Question 84
ISO is the abbreviation for:  
A
Indian Standards Organisation
B
International Standards Organisation
C
Indo-Swiss Organisation
D
International Organisation for Standardization
Question 85
Who is the Chief Justice of India?  
A
Ram Jathmalani
B
Soli Sorabji
C
K.G. Balakrishnan
D
None of these
Question 86
Who is the President of India?  
A
Sonia Gandhi
B
A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
C
Manmohan Singh
D
Pratibha Devi Singh Patil
Question 87
The historical monument Charminar is located at:  
A
Ahmedabad
B
Hyderabad
C
Mysore
D
Lucknow
Question 88
Vishwanathan Anand is the World Champion in:  
A
Chess
B
Carrom
C
Billiards
D
Snooker
Question 89
The prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award is given to individuals in recognition of their achievements in:  
A
Spots
B
Films
C
Education
D
None of these
Question 90
Homoeopathy, as it is practiced today, was evolved in 18th century by the physician Dr. Samuel Hahnemann who belongs to:  
A
Germany
B
U.K.
C
Greece
D
None of these
Question 91
Directions (Question No. 91-97): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. EAGER:  
A
Clever
B
Enthusiastic
C
Curious
D
Devoted
Question 92
COMMEMORATE:  
A
Boast
B
Remember
C
Manipulate
D
Harmonise
Question 93
REBATE:  
A
Loss
B
Refund
C
Compensation
D
Discount
Question 94
FALSE:  
A
Defective
B
Untrue
C
Incorrect
D
Inaccurate
Question 95
STAID:  
A
Depressive
B
Sedate
C
Backward
D
Dull
Question 96
CONCEAL:  
A
Steal
B
Hide
C
Avoid
D
Keep
Question 97
VENTURE:  
A
Entrust
B
Risk
C
Travel
D
Adventure
Question 98
Directions (Question No. 98-107): In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. AUTONOMY:  
A
Submissiveness
B
Dependence
C
Subordination
D
Slavery
Question 99
TRAGEDY:  
A
Humorous
B
Comedy
C
Romance
D
Calamity
Question 100
ACCORD:  
A
Solution
B
Act
C
Dissent
D
Concord
Question 101
UNIVERSAL:  
A
Narrow
B
Regional
C
Miniature
D
Subsidiary
Question 102
FRATERNITY:  
A
Hospitabilty
B
Hostility
C
Brotherhood
D
Enmity
Question 103
INDULGE:  
A
Avoid
B
Abstain
C
Forego
D
Neglect
Question 104
SCOLD:  
A
Enamour
B
Rebuke
C
Criticise
D
Praise
Question 105
DISDAIN:  
A
Depreciate
B
Admiration
C
Penitence
D
Contempt
Question 106
DESTROY:  
A
Invent
B
Make
C
Produce
D
Create
Question 107
LUXURY:  
A
Sadness
B
Treachery
C
Duplicity
D
Austerity
Question 108
Directions (Question No. 108-111): In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. A person who has no money to pay off his debts:  
A
Debtor
B
Pauper
C
Beggar
D
Insolvent
Question 109
A person living permanently in a certain place:  
A
Native
B
Resident
C
Domicile
D
Subject
Question 110
A thing or person behind time:  
A
Lazy
B
Sluggish
C
Indolent
D
Antiquated
Question 111
A style in which a writer makes a display of his knowledge:  
A
Pedantic
B
Ornate
C
Verbose
D
Pompous
Question 112
Directions (Question No. 112-116): In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb. To turn over a new leaf:  
A
To change completely one’s course of action
B
To shift attention to new problems after having studied the old ones thoroughly
C
To cover up one’s faults by wearing new marks
D
To change the old habits and adopt new ones
Question 113
To hit below the belt:  
A
To work confidentially
B
To harm unfairly
C
To strike at the exact position
D
To hit the correct mark
Question 114
To keep the ball rolling:  
A
To earn more and more
B
To work constantly
C
To keep the conversation going
D
To make the best use of
Question 115
Queer somebody’s pitch:  
A
Upset one’s plan
B
Reprimand him
C
Check him
D
Work him up
Question 116
A bull in a china shop:  
A
A person who is very ugly but loves the beautiful things of life
B
A person who takes a sadistic delight in harming innocent people
C
A person who becomes too excited where no excitement is required
D
A person who is rough and clumsy where skill and care are required
Question 117
Directions (Question No. 117-120): In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.           A. Comentry     B. Commentry          C. Commentery  D. Commentary  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 118
A. Lackadaisical           B. Lackadisical C. Lackadaisicle            D. Lackdaisical  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 119
A. Surveilance             B. Survellance C. Surveillance            D. Survaillance     
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 120
      A. Exempsion         B. Exemption       C. Examption          D. Exumption  
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 121
The population of a town was 54,000 in the last census. It has increased 2/3rds since then. Its present population is:  
A
1,08,000
B
90,000
C
72,000
D
36,000
Question 122
The prices of a scooter and a moped are in the ratio of 9:5. If a scooter costs Rs. 4,200 more than a moped, find the price of the moped.  
A
Rs. 5,250
B
Rs. 3,350
C
Rs. 6,500
D
Rs. 5,700
Question 123
If 0.7 of one number be the same as 0.075 of another, what is the ratio of the numbers?  
A
2:28
B
3:28
C
7:25
D
7:28
Question 124
12 ÷ 0.09 of 0.3 × 2 = ?  
A
0.80
B
8.0
C
80
D
None of these
Question 125
7.32 × 4.12 = ?  
A
33.1564
B
30.1584
C
30.3334
D
39.1584
Question 126
80.40 ÷ 20 – (–4.2) = ?  
A
497.8
B
5.786
C
947.0
D
8.22
Question 127
542 – 369 + 171 – 289 = ?  
A
135
B
55
C
255
D
245
Question 128
5329 + 4328 – 369 – 7320 = ?  
A
1698
B
1998
C
1958
D
1968
Question 129
Two numbers are in the ratio of 8:7. If the sum of these two numbers is 450, find the numbers.  
A
210 and 240
B
240 and 210
C
235 and 215
D
215 and 235
Question 130
The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 7:5 and their expenditures are in the ratio 5:3. If each saves Rs. 1,600, what are their incomes?  
A
Rs. 5,600 and Rs. 4,000
B
Rs. 7,000 and Rs. 5,000
C
Rs. 14,000 and Rs. 10,000
D
Rs. 21,000 and Rs. 15,000
Question 131
An auctioneer’s charges 10% for selling a guitar. The sale price is Rs. 3,455. What is the auctioneer’s commission?  
A
Rs. 345.50
B
Rs. 345
C
Rs. 385.50
D
Rs. 385
Question 132
In how many different ways can the letters of word ‘OPERATE’ be arranged?  
A
5040
B
720
C
2520
D
360
Question 133
15% of 45% of a number is 105.3. What is 24% of that number?  
A
385.5
B
374.4
C
390
D
375
Question 134
21 binders can bind 1400 books in 15 days. How many binders will be required to bind 800 books in 20 days?  
A
7
B
9
C
12
D
14
Question 135
The difference between two numbers is 3 and the difference between their square is 63. Which is the larger number?  
A
12
B
9
C
15
D
Cannot be determined
Question 136
By how much is 4/5 of 1150 less than 5/6th of 1248  
A
140
B
115
C
125
D
120
Question 137
In a college election between two candidates, one candidate got 55% of the total valid votes. 15% of the votes were invalid. If the total votes were 15,200, what is the number of valid votes the other candidate got?  
A
7106
B
6840
C
8360
D
5814
Question 138
If (74)2 subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 5340. What is the number?  
A
98
B
102
C
104
D
110
Question 139
The product of two consecutive even numbers is 582168. Which is the smaller number?  
A
760
B
762
C
764
D
766
Question 140
In a sale, a perfume is available at a discount of 15% on the selling price. If the perfume’s discounted selling price is Rs. 3675.4, what was the original selling price of the perfume?  
A
Rs. 4,324/-
B
Rs. 4,386/-
C
Rs. 4,400/-
D
Rs. 4,294/-
Question 141
The population of a town was 48600. It increased by 25% in the first year and decreased by 8% in the second year. What will be the population of the town at the end of 2 year?  
A
65610
B
55580
C
60750
D
None of these
Question 142
A, B, C, D and E are five consecutive odd number. The sum of A and C is 146. What is the value of E?  
A
75
B
81
C
71
D
79
Question 143
If 25a + 25b = 115, then what is the average of a and b?  
A
4.6
B
2.5
C
4.5
D
None of these
Question 144
Excluding the stoppages, the speed of a bus 64 kms/hr and including the stoppages the speed of the bus is 48 kms/hr. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?  
A
12.5 minutes
B
15 minutes
C
10 minutes
D
18 minutes
Question 145
The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of a two-digits number is less than the original number by 18. The sum of the two digits of the number is 16. What is the original number?  
A
97
B
87
C
79
D
Cannot be determined
Question 146
Swapnil, Aakash and Vinay begin to jog around a circular stadium. They complete their revolution in 36 seconds, 48 seconds and 42 seconds respectively. After how many second will they be together at the starting point?   
A
504 seconds
B
950 seconds
C
1008 seconds
D
470 seconds
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