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JCECE Mock Test Online

JCECE MCQ Questions Answers for engineering medical entrance exams subjects : Maths, Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology). This mock test having 25 questions in each subjects, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this JCECE test question details at the end of the quiz.

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JCECE 2017 Jharkhand Combined Entrance Competitive Examination questions answers are applicable for any kind of medical entrance test (UG) , engineering entrance  and Pharmacy entrance preparation in India. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers JCECE critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking all india level exam.



For more resources you can go through JCECE Previous Year Question Papers Answers.

JCECE Online Practice Test - Chemistry

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Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Increase m atomic size down the group is due to
A
increase in number of electrons
B
increase in number of protons and neutrons
C
increase in number of protons
D
increase in number of protons, neutrons and electrons
Question 2
t-butyl alcohol is
A
2-methyl propan-2-ol
B
2-methyl propan- 1-ol
C
3-methyl butan- 1-ol
D
3-methyl butan-2-ol
Question 3
Optical isomerism is shown by
A
propanol-2
B
butanol-2
C
ethanol
D
methanol
Question 4
Blister copper is
A
impure Cu
B
Cu alloy
C
pure Cu
D
Cu having 1% impurity
Question 5
When hydrogen molecules decomposed into its atoms which conditions gives maximum yield of H atoms?
A
High temperature and low pressure
B
Low temperature and high pressure
C
High temperature and high pressure
D
Low temperature and low pressure
Question 6
Highest ionising power is exhibited by
A
α-rays
B
β-rays
C
γ-rays
D
x-rays
Question 7
An alkyl halide by formation of its Grignard reagent and hearing with water yields propane. What is the original alkyl halide?
A
Methyl iodide
B
Ethyl iodide
C
Ethyl bromide
D
Propyl bromide
Question 8
1.520 g of hydroxide of a metal on ignition gave 0.995 g of oxide. The equivalent weight of metal is
A
1.52
B
0.995
C
190
D
9
Question 9
van’t Hoff factor of Ca(NO3)2 is
A
one
B
two
C
three
D
four
Question 10
Which will reduce zinc oxide to zinc?
A
Mg
B
Pb
C
Cu
D
Fe
Question 11
By Wurtz reaction, a mixture of methyl iodide and ethyl iodide gives:
A
butane
B
ethane
C
propane
D
A mixture of the above three
Question 12
Addition of SnCl2 to HgCl2 gives precipitate:
A
white turning to red
B
white turning to grey
C
black turning to white
D
none of the above
Question 13
In fermentation by zymase, alcohol and CO2 are obtained from:
A
invert sugar
B
glucose
C
fructose
D
all of these
Question 14
The stability of feme ion is due to:
A
half filled f-orbitals
B
half filled d-orbitals
C
completely filled f-orbitals
D
completely filled d-orbitals
Question 15
Electron affinity is positive; when
A
O changes into O-
B
O- changes into O2-
C
O changes into O+
D
electron affinity is always negative
Question 16
Ionisation potential for a noble gas is:
A
maximum in a period
B
minimum in a period
C
either minimum or maximum
D
constant
Question 17
Ethylamine on a acetylating gives:
A
N-ethyl acetamide
B
acetamide
C
methyl acetamide
D
none of the above
Question 18
In presence of moisture, SO2 can:
A
act as oxidant
B
act as reductant
C
gain electron
D
not act as reductant
Question 19
Acetals are:
A
ketones
B
diethers
C
aldehyde
D
hydrozy aldehydes
Question 20
The principle involved in the classification of basic radicals, is:
A
common ion effect
B
solubility product
C
valency of radicals
D
strength of salt
Question 21
Formation of diethyl ether from ethanol is based on a:
A
dehydration reaction
B
dehydrogenation reaction
C
hydrogenation reaction
D
homolytic fission reaction
Question 22
What is the weight of oxygen that Is required for the complete combustion of 2.8 kg of ethylene?
A
9.6 kg
B
96.0 kg
C
6.4 kg
D
2.8 kg
Question 23
The metal that does not displace hydrogen from an acid is:
A
Ca
B
Al
C
Zn
D
Hg
Question 24
What is obtained when acetyl chloride is heated with benzene in presence of anhydrous AlCl3?
A
Acetyl benzoic acid
B
Anisol
C
Acetophenone
D
Chlorobenzene
Question 25
Highest entropy is in:
A
hydrogen
B
graphite
C
water
D
mercury
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JCECE Question Answers - Biology

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Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Retroviruses have:    
A
only RNA as genetic material
B
only DNA as genetic material
C
DNA and RNA as genetic material
D
genes on nucleoprotein material
Question 2
Reindeer moss is a:      
A
pteridophyta
B
bryophyta
C
lichen
D
gymnosperm
Question 3
 AzolIa is used as biofertilizers because it:    
A
has Rhizobium
B
is fast growing and can form humus
C
has cyanobacteria
D
has mycorrhiza
Question 4
Lateral conjugation in Spirogyra occurs between individual which:     
A
are heterothallic
B
are homothallic
C
have different characters
D
are floating
Question 5
Down’s syndrome is characterised by:     
A
21st trisomy
B
two X and one Y chromosome
C
19 trisomy
D
only one X chromosome
Question 6
Compositae is also called:      
A
Asteraceae
B
Myrtaceae
C
Fabaceae
D
Zingiberaceae
Question 7
In plants translocation occurs in the form of:       
A
starch
B
sucrose
C
glucose
D
fructose
Question 8
Which of the following is a component of electron transport chain in mitochondria ?     
A
Phytochrome
B
Cytochrome oxidase
C
Plastocyanin
D
Carotenoids
Question 9
 Cyanide resistant respiration is characteristic of:      
A
viruses
B
bacteria
C
plants
D
animals
Question 10
Gibberellin was first isolated from:      
A
oat coleoptile
B
Actinomycete
C
fungus
D
soybean seedlings
Question 11
 Seedless water melons are obtained by:     
A
triploidy
B
gibberellin application
C
haploidy
D
vegetative propagation
Question 12
Ethylene is involved in:     
A
aerobic respiration
B
anaerobic respiration
C
climacteric respiration
D
fermentation
Question 13
The function of glyoxysome is:     
A
protein metabolism
B
carbohydrate metabolism
C
fat metabolism
D
protein synthesis
Question 14
One gene-one enzyme theory was proposed by:       
A
Temin and Baltimore
B
Watson and Crick
C
Robert and Koch
D
Beadle and Tatum
Question 15
Procambium forms:      
A
cork cambium
B
vascular tissue
C
vascular cambium
D
intercalary meristem
Question 16
Cells having secretory function have abundant:      
A
lysosomes
B
endoplasmic reticulum
C
dictyosomes
D
osteosomes
Question 17
Formation of RNA from DNA is known as:         
A
transcription
B
translation
C
replication
D
recombination
Question 18
Stratification is seen in:         
A
Tundra
B
Tropical forest
C
Temperate forest
D
Desert
Question 19
Relationship between different organisms can be best described by:      
A
blood web
B
pyramid of energy
C
pyramid of mass
D
Eltonian pyramid
Question 20
Biogeochemical cycle of which element has atmospheric phase:       
A
carbon
B
sodium
C
phosphorus
D
magnesium
Question 21
Sieve tubes differ from sieve cells because they:     
A
have pores mainly on its walls
B
are shorter
C
lack nuclei
D
are dead
Question 22
Cytokinins are formed in:      
A
roots
B
leaves
C
fruits
D
stems
Question 23
Geotropic response is perceived by:     
A
root tip
B
root hairs
C
elongating cells
D
mature root cells
Question 24
Ultimate source of variation is:       
A
mutation
B
mitosis
C
meiosis
D
fertilization
Question 25
Eggs of egg laying mammals are:     
A
macrolecithal
B
alecithal
C
mesolecithal
D
telolecithal
Question 26
Mendelian recombinations are due to:      
A
linkage
B
independent assortment of genes
C
mutation
D
dominant characters
Question 27
Which of the following is not a function of liver:      
A
Production of bile
B
Production of insulin
C
Glycogen storage
D
Detoxification
Question 28
Ureotelic organisms:     
A
do not have urease
B
do not excrete urea
C
cannot form uric acid
D
live in water only
Question 29
Rajaji national park is in:       
A
Karnataka
B
Rajasthan
C
UttarPradesh
D
Assam
Question 30
A plant which is cultivated by tissue culture technique is:     
A
Citrus
B
Apple
C
Pear
D
Guava
Question 31
Cytokinin synthesis is maximum in:       
A
leaves
B
roots
C
fruits
D
shoot tip
Question 32
Apnoea is:     
A
absence of breathing
B
decreased ventilation
C
increased ventilation
D
laboured breathing
Question 33
Field capacity is associated with:    
A
capillary, hygroscopic, water vapour combined
B
capillary only
C
gravitational only
D
gravitational as well as
Question 34
Food is translocated in plants through:      
A
xylem
B
phloem
C
cambium
D
cork
Question 35
Which of the following organism is pseudocoelomate?.      
A
Hookworm
B
Liver fluke
C
Jellyfish
D
Leech
Question 36
Veliger larva is found in the phylum:      
A
Mollusca
B
Echinodermata
C
Arthropoda
D
Cnidaria
Question 37
Pick out the odd one:     
A
Aniielida
B
Reptilia
C
Insecta
D
Taenia
Question 38
Which of the following statement about bee colony is wrong?      
A
Domesticated species are A. indica and A. mcllihfera
B
Sex differentiation is due to haplodiploidy
C
They are female dominant societies
D
Fertilized eggs develop into sterile females only
Question 39
Calmodulin is a:      
A
chlorophyll binding protein
B
cadmium binding protein
C
calcium binding protein
D
carotene binding protein
Question 40
Potato is native to:       
A
South America
B
North America
C
South East
D
Australia
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JCECE MCQ Quiz Test - Physics

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Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which is constant, the earth revolving around the sun?    
A
Angular momentum
B
Linear momentum
C
Rotational kinetic energy
D
Kinetic energy
Question 2
 Two spheres each of mass M and radius R/2 are connected with a massless rod of length 2R as shown in the figure. What will be the moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the centre of one of the spheres and perpendicular to the rod?     
A
pV
B
2 pV
C
3 pV
D
4 pV
Question 3
In non- elastic collision    
A
momentum is conserved
B
energy is conserved
C
momentum and energy are conserved
D
momentum and energy are non conserved
Question 4
In adiabatic process, the work done by system is 50 J, then   
A
the temperature of the system will be increase 50 J
B
the temperature of the system will be constant
C
the internal energy of the system will be increase 50J
D
the internal energy of the system will be decrease 50 J
Question 5
The requirement in phase relative source that those   
A
amplitudes are same
B
wavelengths are same
C
frequencies are same
D
first phase difference are same
Question 6
In the Young’s double slit experiment, intensities of black and bright fringes are 1 and 4 respectively, the ratio of amplitudes of sources will be    
A
1:1
B
1:2
C
3:1
D
1:4
Question 7
The primary reason of generation of Frounhofer line is   
A
reflection of radiations by chromosphere
B
absorption of radiation by chromosphere
C
emittion of radiation by chromosphere
D
transmission of radiation by chromospheres
Question 8
A pure resistance is attached as shown in figure. The phase difference between the emf and flowing current will be    
A
zero
B
r/2
C
—r/2
D
n/4
Question 9
The ozone layer is important because     
A
It prevents the cooling of each at night
B
it prevents the IR rays coming from the space
C
it prevents UV rays from the meteors coming from the space
D
It prevents the UV rays and micro rays the coming from the space
Question 10
The number of zones for achieving the first minima on the screen due to circular gate will be     
A
4
B
6
C
3
D
2
Question 11
In India for the use the fixed value of voltage and frequency of electricity are     
A
200 V, 60 Hz
B
220 V. 50Hz
C
220 V, 60Hz
D
220 V, 50Hz
Question 12
If resonant frequency is / and capacity become 4 times, then resonant frequency will be     
A
f/2
B
2f
C
f
D
f/4
Question 13
The forbidden energy gap in the intrinsic semiconductor is     
A
0.l eV
B
1 eV
C
5 eV
D
10 eV
Question 14
How much kinetic energy will be gained by an a - particle in going from a point at 70 V to another point at 50 V?     
A
40 eV
B
40 keV
C
40 MeV
D
Zero
Question 15
The velocity of sound in air is 333 m/s and the fundamental frequency of open pipe is 333 Hz. The length of pipe to produced second overtones will be    
A
O.5 m
B
1.0 m
C
1.5 m
D
2 m
Question 16
If the length of sonometer wire is to be half, the value of resonance frequency will be     
A
three times
B
half
C
four times
D
twice
Question 17
The intensity of the X-rays in coolidge tube control   
A
by the current flowing in the filament
B
by potential between the cathode and anti- cathode
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 18
Which of the following is correct in terms of increasing work done for the same initial and final states?    
A
Adiabatic < Isothermal < Isobaric
B
Isobaric < Adiabatic < Isothermal
C
Adiabatic < Isobaric < Isothermal
D
None of the above
Question 19
The produced rays in sonography are     
A
microwaves
B
infrared waves
C
sound waves
D
ultra sound
Question 20
The ratio of secondary of primary turns of step up transformer is 4: 1. If a current of 4 A is applied to the primary, the induced current in secondary will be     
A
8A
B
2A
C
1A
D
0.5A
Question 21
The relation between magnetic susceptibility X and temperature T of paramagnetic materials is     
A
X =C/T
B
X=CT
C
X =T/C
D
X=CT2
Question 22
At any instant the ratio of the amount of radioactive substances is 2:1. If their half lives be respectively 12 and 16 hours, then after two days, what will be the ratio of the substances?     
A
4:1
B
2:1
C
1:2
D
1:4
Question 23
Two bulbs of wattage 25 and 100 respectively are connected in series, which bulbs will fuse?     
A
25 W bulb
B
100 W bulb
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of them
Question 24
The hardness of X-rays by coolidge tube depends upon    
A
filament current
B
air pressure in tube
C
material of target
D
potential between target and cathode
Question 25
If a van der Waal,s gas expands freely, then final temperature is    
A
less than the initial temperature
B
equal to the initial temperature
C
more than the initial temperature
D
less or more than the initial temperature depending on the nature of the gas
Question 26
The required mechanical work to increase in per unit surface area of liquid is called surface tension of the liquid. When liquid is in    
A
isothermal condition
B
isobaric condition
C
isochoric condition
D
adiabatic condition
Question 27
A person will get more quantity of matter in 1 kg-wt  at      
A
poles
B
moon
C
equator
D
satellite
Question 28
The moment of inertia of anybody about an its axis is equal to moment of inertia about its perpendicular axis, body is     
A
disc
B
solid cylinder
C
ring
D
spherical shell
Question 29
A body is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface and its rotational kinetic energy is equal to the translational kinetic energy. The body is     
A
disc
B
sphere
C
cylinder
D
ring
Question 30
An inelastic ball is dropped from a height of 100 m. Due to collision with earth, 20% of its energy is lost. To what height the ball will rise?     
A
80m
B
40m
C
60m
D
20m
Question 31
If two soap bubbles of equal radii R coalesce then the radius of curvature of interface between two bubbles will be      
A
infinity
B
R
C
R/2
D
zero
Question 32
In sky, a liquid is heated in weightlessness, the heat is transmitted through    
A
conduction
B
convection
C
radiation
D
Neither, because the liquid cannot be heated in weightlessness
Question 33
In Young’s double slit experiment the type of diffraction is     
A
Fresnel
B
Fraunhoffer
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of these
Question 34
 Positive rays are beam of     
A
Positrons
B
Protons
C
a-particles
D
Positive-ions
Question 35
Which one is the minimum inresonancing position of series L-C-R circuit?     
A
Current
B
Impedence
C
Reactance
D
Power factor
Question 36
If light to be polarized by reflection then the angle between reflected and refracted rays is     
A
r
B
r/2
C
2r
D
r/4
Question 37
What will be the percentage of radioactive material after 5 half- life?     
A
31%
B
3.125%
C
0.3%
D
1%
Question 38
A light wave of speed v is incidence on plane surface, after reflection its speed will be     
A
v
B
v/2
C
v/3
D
y/4
Question 39
Two siren situated one kilometer apart are producing sound of frequency 330 Hz. An observer starts moving from one siren to the other with a speed of 2 m/s. If the speed of sound be 330 m/s, what will be the beat frequency heard by the observer?     
A
8
B
4
C
6
D
1
Question 40
A body cools down from 80°C to 70°C in 6 min. The time taken to cool it from 60°C to 50°C will be   
A
less than 6 min
B
6 min
C
more than 6 min
D
None of the above
Question 41
At temperature 227°C, the power radiated by a body is Q cal/cm2. At the temperature 727°C the power radiated by it will be     
A
2Q
B
4Q
C
16Q
D
32Q
Question 42
A space shuttle of mass 2500 kg is projected outside the gravitational field of the earth in space. The radius of earth is 6400 km. The minimum initial velocity of the shutle should be    
A
5.6 km/s
B
7.25 km/s
C
8.5 km/s
D
11.2 km/s
Question 43
n bullets of each of mass m hits the surface with velocity u. The force feet by surface will be     
A
mnu
B
2 mnu
C
4mnu
D
zero
Question 44
There is a rough black spot on a polished metal plate. If the plate in heated up to 1400°C and taken in a dark room, then what will be the rise in temperature    
A
the spot will be brighter as compared to remaining part of plat.
B
spot and remaining part of the plate will be equally bright
C
Neither spot nor the remaining part of the plate will be bright
D
the spot is less bright, as compared to remaining part of the plate
Question 45
The force due to surface tension of a capillary tube filled with water is balanced by the force of 72 x 10-5 N worked toward the base due to weight of water. The surface tension of water is 0.06 N/m. The internal radius of capillary tube will be will be    
A
0.5 mm
B
2 mm
C
1.1 mm
D
1.75 mm
Question 46
The mass and radius of a planet have half the value of corresponding parameter of earth. Acceleration due to gravity on the surface the planet is     
A
4.9 m/s2
B
9.8 m/s2
C
19.6 m/s2
D
zero
Question 47
When a mass 5 kg attached to a spring, it normally extends by 12 cm. If the weighted spring oscillates, then its time period will be     
A
0.7s
B
0.9s
C
1.l s
D
1.4s
Question 48
The average kinetic energy of helium atom at 300c will be     
A
13.6 eV
B
59.60 eV
C
15 keV
D
less from 1 eV
Question 49
When 4 A current flows in a motor, the power loss in 20 W and the resultant potential difference is 220 V, emf will be       
A
220 V
B
225 V
C
240V
D
260V
Question 50
A step up transformer operates on a 230 V line and supplies a load of 2 A. The ratio of the primary and secondary winding is 1 : 25. The current in the primary is    
A
50A
B
25A
C
12.5 A
D
6.25 A
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