≡ Menu




JKBOPEE CET Question Answers

JKBOPEE CET Questions Answers for medical entrance exams subjects : Maths, Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology). This mock test having 25 questions in each subjects, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this J&K CET test question details at the end of the quiz.

Sponsored Links

JKBOPEE CET Question Answers

Jammu and Kashmir Common Entrance Test 2016 (JKCET 2017) questions answers are applicable for any kind of medical entrance test (UG) , engineering entrance  preparation in India. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers JKCET critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking all India level exam.



For more resources you can go through JKBOPEE CET Previous Year Question Papers Answers.

 

JK CET 2016 - JKBOPEE Practice Test - Chemistry

Congratulations - you have completed JK CET 2016 - JKBOPEE Practice Test - Chemistry .You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which one of the following is correct?
A
Equivalent conductance decreases dilution
B
Specific conductance increases with dilution
C
Specific conductance decreases dilution
D
Equivalent conductance increases with increasing concentration
Question 2
Pick out the wrong statement  
A
The standard free energy of formation of elements is zero
B
A process that leads to increase in free energy will be spontaneous
C
A process accompanied by decrease in entropy will be non-spontaneous under normal conditions
D
Enthalpy of combustion is always negative
Question 3
Chemically unreactive three different gases A, B and C of molecular masses 16, 32 and 64 are enclosed in a vessel at constant temperature till equilibrium is reached. Which of the following statements is true? 
A
Gas A will be at the top of the vessel
B
Gas C will be at the top of the vessel
C
Gas C will be at the bottom of the vessel
D
Gases will form homogeneous mixture
Question 4
The bond order of C2 molecule is
A
1
B
2
C
0
D
3
Question 5
The oxyacid of sulphur that contains a lone pair of electrons on sulphur is 
A
suiphurous acid
B
sulphuric acid
C
peroxodisuiphunc acid
D
pyrosulphunc acid
Question 6
The paramagnetic oxides of nitrogen are 
A
dinitrogen monoxide and nitrogen monoxide
B
nitrogen monoxide and nitrogen dioxide
C
nitrogen dioxide and dinitrogen trioxide
D
dinitrogen trioxide and dinitrogen tetroxide
Question 7
Which of the following is a correct name according to IUPAC rules? 
A
2, 3-diethyihexane
B
3-ethyl-2-methylpentane
C
3, 4-dimethylpentanc
D
2-ethyl-2-methylpentane
Question 8
Which of the following compound is chiral? 
A
3-pentanol
B
1-pentanol
C
3-methyl-i -butanol
D
3-methyl-2-butanol
Question 9
Which one among the following is most reactive towards electrophilic substitution reaction? 
A
Aniline
B
Nitrobenzene
C
Benzoic acid
D
Acetanilide
Question 10
Which one of the following is not aromatic? 
A
Cyclopentadienyl anion
B
Cycloheptamenyl cation
C
Cyclooctatetraene
D
Thiophene
Question 11
What happens when blood cells are placed in pure water?  
A
The fluid in blood cells rapidly moves into water
B
The water molecules rapidly move into blood cells
C
The blood cells dissolve in water
D
No change takes place
Question 12
Mendius reaction converts an alkyl cyanide to   
A
a primary amine
B
an aldehyde
C
a ketone
D
an oxime
Question 13
Which one of the following amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel’s synthesis? 
A
Burylamine
B
Isobutylamine
C
2-phenylethylamine
D
N-methylbenzylamine
Question 14
Which one of the following is not an aldose? 
A
Glucose
B
Ribose
C
Fructose
D
Mannose
Question 15
The Van’t Hoff factor ‘i’ for a dilute aqueous solution of sucrose is 
A
zero
B
1.0
C
1.5
D
2.0
Question 16
Which of the following is most acidic? 
A
Methane
B
Ethane
C
Ethyne
D
Ethene
Question 17
Phenol on heating with alcoholic KOH and chloroform undergoes 
A
Reimer-Tiemann reaction
B
Kolbe reaction
C
Gattermann reaction
D
Cannizzaro rcaction
Question 18
Chloroform on heating with silver powder gives  
A
ethene
B
ethyne
C
methane
D
ehane
Question 19
In zinc blende structure, the coordination number of the cation is 
A
4
B
6
C
8
D
12
Question 20
The alloy of copper that contains zinc is 
A
monel metal
B
bronze
C
bell metal
D
brass
Question 21
When a solution containing non-volatile solute is diluted with water 
A
its osmotic pressure increases
B
its boiling point increases
C
its freezing point decreases
D
its vapour pressure increases
Question 22
How much volume of oxygen at STP, in litre is required to burn 4 g of methane gas completely?   
A
11.2
B
5.6
C
2.8
D
8
Question 23
A solution with negative deviation among the following is  
A
ethanol-acetone
B
chlorobenzene bromobenzene
C
chloroform-acetone
D
benzene-toluene
Question 24
The incorrect statement among the following is 
A
The entropy of the universe remains constant
B
Heat can be completely converted into work only under specified conditions
C
The absolute entropy of a perfect crystalline solid at absolute zero temperature is zero
D
The total energy of an isolated system remains constant
Question 25
Which one of the following is always not negative?  
A
Enthalpy of combustion
B
Enthalpy of formation
C
Enthalpy of neutralisation
D
Lattice enthalpy
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results
There are 25 questions to complete.
List
Return
Shaded items are complete.
12345
678910
1112131415
1617181920
2122232425
End
Return

J&K CET 2016 - JKBOPEE Practice Test - Chemistry

Congratulations - you have completed J&K CET 2016 - JKBOPEE Practice Test - Chemistry.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The element with maximum value of binding energy per nucleon is 
A
iron
B
aluminium
C
uranium
D
hydrogen
Question 2
Rainbow is a phenomenon due to  
A
dispersion alone
B
refraction alone
C
reflection alone
D
combined effect of dispersion, refraction and reflection
Question 3
If two bodies stick together after collision and move as a single body, the collision is said to be  
A
perfectly inelastic
B
elastic
C
inelastic
D
perfecdy elastic
Question 4
If the magnetic susceptibility of a material is large and positive. The material is 
A
diamagnetic
B
ferromagnetic
C
paramagnetic
D
perfect diamagnetic
Question 5
The material whose resistivity is insensitive to temperature is  
A
silicon
B
copper
C
silver
D
nichrome
Question 6
Fractional increase in resistivity per unit increase in temperature is defined as 
A
resistivity
B
temperature coefficient of resistivity
C
conductivity
D
drift velocity
Question 7
For a body immersed in a liquid, when the weight of the body is less than the upthrust then the body will  
A
float partially immersed
B
sink
C
float fully Immersed
D
be of zero weight
Question 8
In the case of a sphere falling through a viscous medium, it attains terminal velocity when 
A
viscous force plus buoyant force becomes equal to force of gravity
B
viscous force is zero
C
viscous force plus force of gravity becomes equal to buoyant force
D
buoyant force become equal to force of gravity
Question 9
The transfer characteristics of a base biased transistor has the operation regions, namely, cut—off, active region and saturation region. For using the transistor as an amplifier it has to operate in the  
A
active region
B
cut-off region
C
sturation region
D
cut-off and saturation
Question 10
The escape velocity of a body on the surface of earth is 11.2 km/s. If the earth’s mass increases to twice its present value and the radius of the earth becomes half, the escape velocity would become 
A
5.6 km/s
B
11.2 km/s
C
44.8 km/s
D
22.4 km/s
Question 11
Which one of the following statement is not correct in the case of light emitting diodes?  
A
It is a heavily doped p-n junction
B
It emits light only when it is forward biased
C
It emits light only when it is reverse biased
D
The energy of the light emitted is less than the energy of the semiconductor used
Question 12
A Carnot cycle has the reversible processes in the following order
A
isothermal expansion, adiabatic expansion, isothermal compression and adiabatic compression
B
isothermal compression, adiabatic expansion, isothermal expansion and adiabatic compression
C
isothermal expansion, adiabatic compression, isothermal compression and adiabatic expansion
D
adiabatic expansion, isothermal expansion, adiabatic compression and isothermal compression
Question 13
The number of turns of the primary and the secondary coils of a transformer are 10 and 100 respectively. The primary voltage and the current are given as 2 V and 1 A. Assuming the efficiency of the transformer as 90%, the secondary voltage and the current respectively are  
A
20 V and 0.1
B
0.2 V and 1 A
C
20 V and 0.09 A
D
0.2 V and 0.9 A
Question 14
The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons  
A
varies linearly with the frequency of the incident radiation
B
varies linearly with the wavelength of incident light
C
proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation
D
proportional to the square of the frequency of incident radiation
Question 15
The electromagnetic waves of frequency 2 MHz to 30 MHz are used 
A
in ground wave propagation
B
in sky wave propagation
C
in microwave propagation
D
in satellite communication
Question 16
If the polar ice caps were to melt suddenly 
A
the length of the day will be more than 24 h
B
the length of the day will be less than 24 h
C
the length of the day will remain as 24 h
D
the length of the day will become more than 24 h initially and then becomes equal to 24 h
Question 17
Which one of the following statements is not correct in uniform circular motion?  
A
The speed of the particle remains constant
B
The acceleration always points towards the centre
C
The angular speed remains constant
D
The velocity remains constant
Question 18
The number of ways one can arrange three identical capacitors to obtain distinct effective capacitances is
A
8
B
6
C
4
D
3
Question 19
Which one of the following is not a characteristics of diamagnetism? 
A
The diamagnetic materials are repelled by a bar magnet
B
The magnetic susceptibility of the materials is small and negative
C
The origin of diamagnetism is the spin of electrons
D
The material move from a region of strong magnetic field to weak magnetic field
Question 20
If a current of 5 A in a coil of self inductance 2 mH is cut-off In time 0.1 s, the induced emf in the coil is  
A
0.1 V
B
0.01 V
C
0.2 V
D
0.02 V
Question 21
The working principle of rocket propulsion is conservation of 
A
angular momentum
B
mass
C
linear momentum
D
kinetic energy
Question 22
Work done in taking a mass from one point to another in a gravitational field depends on  
A
the end points only
B
the path followed
C
the velocity of the mass
D
both the length of the path and the end points
Question 23
A particle is describing uniform circular motion. Its acceleration is  
A
along the radius of the circular path pointing towards the centre
B
along the tangent to the circular path
C
along the radius of the circular path pointing away from the centre
D
zero
Question 24
The third overtone of an open organ pipe is in resonance with the second overtone of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the open pipe is 8 cm, then the length of closed pipe is 
A
l0 cm
B
8 cm
C
12 cm
D
5 cm
Question 25
The requirement for heat conduction to take place in a solid is 
A
density gradient
B
uniform density
C
temperature gradient
D
uniform temperature
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results
There are 25 questions to complete.
List
Return
Shaded items are complete.
12345
678910
1112131415
1617181920
2122232425
End
Return

JKBOPEE CET -Online Mock Test - Biology

Congratulations - you have completed JKBOPEE CET -Online Mock Test - Biology.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which of the following is a part of our brain ?   
A
Corpora allata
B
Corpora adiposa
C
Corpora bigemina
D
Corpora quadrigemina
Question 2
The two chromatids of a metaphase chromosome represent: 
A
replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase
B
homologous chromosomes of a diploid set
C
non-homologous chromosomes joined at the centromere
D
maternal and paternal chromosomes joined at the centromere
Question 3
A gcnc of operon which synthesizes a rcprcssor protLin is  
A
promoter gene
B
structural gene
C
operator gene
D
regulator gene
Question 4
 Identify from the following, a characteristic pigment which contain copper containing protein  
A
plastoqutnonc
B
fcrrcdoxiri
C
cytochrornc
D
plastocyanin
Question 5
Which of the following hormones are produced In the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary?
A
FSH and LH
B
ADI-1 and oxytecin
C
TSH and STH
D
AT1I and MSFI
Question 6
One growth ring of plants consists of :  
A
only autumn wood
B
spring wood and early wood
C
only spring wood
D
spring wood and autumn wood
Question 7
Adenosine mono-phosphate is a:  
A
nucleoside of DNA
B
nucleotide of DNA
C
nucleoside of RNA
D
nucleotide of RNA
Question 8
Comopund saccular glands are   
A
intestinal glands
B
salivary glands
C
gastric glands
D
endocrine glands
Question 9
In which ot the following regions of a rieph ron does t axirnum reaborp Lion of useful substances, takes place ?  
A
Henle’s luop
B
Glonierulus
C
Proximal convoluted tubule
D
Distal convoluted tubule
Question 10
Two pea plants were subjected cross pollimition. Of the 183 plants produced in the next generation, 94 plants were found to be talL and 89 plants were found to be dwarf. The genotypes of the two parental plants are likely to be:
A
TTand tt
B
Tt and Tt
C
Tand tt
D
Tf and TT
Question 11
The source of energy for non-biological nitrogen fixation is:  
A
by ionizing events such as lightning and effect of cosmic rays
B
ferredoxin enzyme and nitrogenase
C
by reduction of proteins to ammonia
D
by oxidation of ammonia to protein
Question 12
The l.w of limiting factor was proposed by:  
A
F.F. I3lackman
B
D. Arnon
C
Robert 11111
D
R. Emerson
Question 13
Which of the following natural process is likely to hasten organic evolution ?  
A
Favorited environment
B
overproduction
C
Abundant gcriotypic variations
D
Reproductivc isolation
Question 14
Monoclotial antibodies are pwduced from hybrid cells, called hybridomas. The cells employed to obtain these hybridoma cells, are:
A
B-lymphocytes kind myeloma cells
B
lyniphoma cells and bone marrow cells
C
T-Lymphocytes and myeloma cells
D
B-lymphocytes and carcinoma cells
Question 15
Whidi of the odd type of vegetable in a basket containing the following ?  
A
Beet roots
B
Potats
C
Carrots
D
Radishes
Question 16
Vessels are the major water conducting cells in :
A
dicots only
B
pteridophytcs and gymnosprrns
C
angiosperms
D
monocots only
Question 17
A single amino acid is often coded by more than one triplet code. In most of the cases the first two bases are the same but the third base is different. This feature of the genetic code is called  
A
universality
B
non-overlapping and commaless
C
redundancy and degeneracy
D
non-ambiguity
Question 18
Aerosome is a part of:  
A
foetus
B
Graitfian follicle
C
human ovum
D
human sperm
Question 19
A technology which has found immense use in solving cases of disputed parentage. is
A
polymerase chain reaction
B
DNA finger printing
C
mon oclonal antibody prod uction
D
recombinant DNA technology
Question 20
Read the two statements A and B Statement A : Diversity observed in the entire geographical area, is called gamma diversity. Statement B: Biodiversity decreases from high altitude to low altitude. Identify the correct choice from those given below:
A
statement A is correct, B is wrong
B
statmcnt B is correct, A is wrong
C
both the stawnieiits A atid B ate cot tect
D
both the statements A and B are wrong
Question 21
Turtles are :
A
pisces
B
reptiles
C
molluscans
D
arthropods
Question 22
During ventricular systole:  
A
oxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the artery
B
oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta and deoxygena ted blood is pumped into the pulmonary vein
C
oxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary vein and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery
D
oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta and deoxygenated blood pumped into the pulmonary artery
Question 23
An example of Pasteur effect is:  
A
Penicillium
B
Saccharomyces
C
Pimularia
D
Notoc
Question 24
Green house effect is the cumulative result of the influcnce of certain gases. Identify Llw gas, which is not involved in this influence
A
methane
B
chiurolluorocarbons
C
nitrogen
D
carbon dioxide
Question 25
The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is
A
replication of the genetic materiai
B
splitting of the chromatids
C
splitting of the ccntromercs
D
condensation o the chromatin
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results
There are 25 questions to complete.
List
Return
Shaded items are complete.
12345
678910
1112131415
1617181920
2122232425
End
Return

 

0 Users (0 votes)
Helpful
What people say... Any help? Leave your Question (We will reply you with in 3 Days)
Sort by:

Be the first to leave a review.

Verified
{{{review.rating_comment | nl2br}}}

Show more
{{ pageNumber+1 }}
Any help? Leave your Question (We will reply you with in 3 Days)