Medical PG Entrance Practice Test Online Quiz

Medical PG Entrance Question Answers Practice Test Physics,  Chemistry, Biology

Medical PG Entrance MCQ Questions Answers for all India and state level medical entrance exams: This mock test having 25 question each, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this Medical PG Entrance test question details at the end of the quiz.

This Post graduate entrance questions answers are applicable for any kind of Medical PG Entrance 2016. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers Medical PG Entrance Objective question are from Biology, Chemistry, Physics critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking PG level exam.



Medical PG Entrance Physics Practice Test 

Medical PG Entrance - Physics Practice Test 1

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Medical PG Entrance Chemistry Practice Test 

Medical PG Entrance - Chemistry Practice - Test 1

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Question 1
Enthalpy of neutralisation of CH3COOH by NaOH is — 50.6 kJ/mol and the heat of neutralisation of a strong acid with NaOH is — 55.9 kJ/ mol. The value of ΔH for the ionisation of CH3CQOH is:
A
4.5 kJ/mol
B
2.6 kJ/mol
C
5.3 kJ/mol
D
7.4 kJ/mol
Question 2
The number of sigma electrons in toluene is:
A
5
B
10
C
15
D
30
Question 3
The monomer of teflon is:
A
tetra chloroethylene
B
tetra bromoethylene
C
tetra iodoethylene
D
tetra fluoroethylene
Question 4
The liquefied metal expanding on solid solidification is:
A
Ga
B
Al
C
Zn
D
Cl
Question 5
van’t Hoff factor is:
A
more than one in case of association
B
less than one in case of dissociation
C
equal to (normal molecular mass/observed molecular mass)
D
equal to (observed molecular mass/normal molecular mass)
Question 6
The most suitable method for removing water traces from ethanol is: 
A
distillation
B
passing dry HCI
C
reacting it with Mg
D
heat with sodium metal
Question 7
The IUPAC name of following compound is: CH3 — C(CH3)2 — CH = C(CH3)2
A
2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethyl-but-1- ene
B
1, 1, 3-trimethyl-pent-2-ene
C
2, 2, 4-trimethyl but-4-ene
D
2, 4, 4-trimethyl pent-2-ene
Question 8
The nucleic acid base having two possible binding sites is:
A
thymine
B
cytosine
C
guanine
D
adenine
Question 9
Solid CO2 is known as dry ice:
A
it melts at 0°C
B
its BP is more than 199°C
C
it directly change to vapours lowering the temperature to - 78° C
D
none of the above
Question 10
The most suitable method for removing water traces from ethanol is: 
A
distillation
B
passing dry HCI
C
reacting it with Mg
D
heat with sodium metal
Question 11
The kinetic energy of two moles of N2 at 27°C is (R = 8.324 JK-1mol-1):
A
6491 .6 J
B
7491 .6 J
C
8491 .6 J
D
9882.4 J
Question 12
The dipole moment is the highest for:
A
trans-2-butene
B
1, 3, -dimethylbenzene
C
acetophenone
D
ethanol
Question 13
PKa value of four acids are given below. The strongest acid is:
A
4.5
B
3.5
C
2.5
D
2
Question 14
A solution having hydrogen ion concentration is 0.0005 g-equiIL, its pOH is:
A
9.2798
B
10.6990
C
11.7854
D
15.3344
Question 15
The molecule having highest bond energy is:
A
N—N
B
F—F
C
C—C
D
0—0
Question 16
Among the following the one which reacts most readily with ethanol is:
A
p -nitrobenzyl bromide
B
p -chlorobenzyl bromide
C
p -methoxybenzyl bromide
D
p -methylbenzyl bromide
Question 17
German silver is an alloy of:
A
Fe, Cr, Ni
B
Ag, Cu, Au
C
Cu, Zn, Ni
D
Cu, Zn, Sn
Question 18
The colligative property is not represented by:
A
elevation in boiling point
B
osmotic pressure
C
optical activity
D
relative lowering of vapour pressure
Question 19
1000 g calcium carbonate solution contains 1 Og carbonate. The concentration of solution is
A
1 ppm
B
100 ppm
C
10000 ppm
D
10,0000 ppm
Question 20
Which of the following is not considered as an organometallic compound?
A
cis —platin
B
Ferrocene
C
Zeise’s salt
D
Grignard reagent
Question 21
Which of the following has maximum ionisation potential?
A
Al
B
P
C
Si
D
Mg
Question 22
Which of the following is unaffected by temperature?
A
Normality
B
Molarity
C
Molality
D
Formality
Question 23
The enthalpy of formation of ammonia is = 46.0 kJ mol-1. The enthalpy change for following reaction is 2NH3  -> N2 + 3H2
A
42.0 kJ
B
128.0 kJ
C
132.0 kJ
D
32.0 kJ
Question 24
Which of the following statements is true for the electrochemical Daniel cell?
A
Electrons flow from copper electrode to zinc electrode
B
Current flows from zinc electrode to copper electrode
C
Cations move toward copper electrode
D
Cations move toward zinc electrode
Question 25
Deficiency of vitamin-D causes:
A
night blindness
B
rickets
C
scurvy
D
loss of appetite
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Medical PG Entrance Biology Practice Test 

Medical PG Entrance -Biology Practice - Test 1

Congratulations - you have completed Medical PG Entrance -Biology Practice - Test 1.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
13 celled male gametophyte of Selaginella has:
A
12 cells of antheridium +1 prothallial cell
B
10 cell of antheridium +3 prothallial cell
C
9 cell of antheridium +4 prothallial cell
D
8 cells of antheridium +6 prothallial cell
Question 2
Discontinuous variations are 
A
essential features
B
acquired character
C
non-essential changes
D
mutations
Question 3
The nicotinamide is synthesized in our body from:
A
tryptophan
B
tryosine
C
valine
D
alanine
Question 4
Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the news. The prefix Bt means:
A
barium-treated cotton seeds
B
bigger thread variety of cotton with better tensile strength
C
produced by biotechnology using restriction enzymes and ligases
D
carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus thuringiensis
Question 5
Which of the following is enucleate at maturity?
A
Companion cell
B
Meristematic cell
C
Parenchyma
D
Sieve tube cell
Question 6
5th cranial nerve of frog is called:
A
vagus
B
trigeminal
C
optic
D
ophthalmic
Question 7
Proteins are:
A
polysaccharides
B
polyam ides
C
polynucleotides
D
polyglycol
Question 8
Women who consumed the drug thalidomide for relief from vomiting during early months of pregnancy gave birth to children with
A
no spleen
B
hare-lip
C
extra fingers and toes
D
under developed limbs
Question 9
Apoenzyme is:
A
protein
B
lipid
C
sugar
D
vitamin
Question 10
In rainy season, door get swelled due to:
A
imbibition
B
diffusion
C
transpiration
D
respiration
Question 11
Green mufler is useful against:
A
air pollution
B
noise pollution
C
soil pollution
D
radioactive pollution
Question 12
A baby has been born with a small tail. It is the case exhibiting:
A
retrogressive evolution
B
mutation
C
atavism
D
metamorphosis
Question 13
The plants which can withstand narrow range of temperature tolerance are called:
A
stenothermal
B
eurythermal
C
mesothermal
D
monothermal
Question 14
Which of the following is made up of a single bone in mammal?
A
Dentary
B
Hyoid
C
Upper jaw
D
All of these
Question 15
Cyclosporine is used:
A
for allergy
B
as immunodepressent
C
prophylactic for virus
D
none of the above
Question 16
An example of gene therapy is:
A
production of injectable hepatitis B vaccine
B
production of vaccines in food crops like potatoes which can be eaten
C
introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase in persons suffering from Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency (SCID)
D
production of test tube babies by artificial insemination and implantation of fertilized eggs
Question 17
Power of regeneration of sponges is due to:
A
theocytes
B
archaeocytes
C
amoebocytes
D
sclerocytes
Question 18
In which portion of Cycas diploxylic vascular bundles are found?
A
Root
B
Stem
C
Leaflet
D
Rachis and leaflet
Question 19
Frame shift mutation occurs when:
A
base is added
B
base is deleted
C
base is added or deleted
D
none of the above
Question 20
If the high altitude birds become rare or extinct the plants which may disappear along with them are:
A
pine
B
oak
C
orchids
D
rhododendrons
Question 21
The edible part of cauliflower:
A
inflorescence
B
leaf
C
flower
D
stem
Question 22
Which of the following is not a mental disorder?
A
Epilepsy
B
Neurosis
C
Psychosis
D
Plague
Question 23
Elaters help in dispersal of spores of:
A
Riccia
B
Marchantia
C
Dryopteris
D
Funaria
Question 24
An artificial pace maker is implanted subcutaneously and connected to the heart in patients:
A
having 90% blockage of the three main coronary arteries
B
having a very high blood pressure
C
with irregularity in the heart rhythm
D
suffering from arteriosclerosis
Question 25
Food chain starts with:
A
autotrophs
B
herbivores
C
carnivores
D
decomposers
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