# MH CET Mock Practice Test Online

Maharashtra Common entrance test-Maharashtra (MH CET) MCQ Questions Answers for medical entrance exams subjects : Maths, Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology). This mock test having 25 questions in each subjects, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this MH CET test question details at the end of the quiz.

MH CET questions answers are applicable for any kind of medical entrance test (UG) , engineering entrance  and Pharmacy entrance preparation in India. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers Maharashtra CET critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking all India level exam.

For more resources you can go through MH CET Previous Year Question Papers Answers.

## MH CET Online Mock Test = Physics

Congratulations - you have completed MH CET Online Mock Test = Physics.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
 Question 1
Which of the following is not an electromagnetic wave?
 A Light rays B X- rays C Alpha rays D Gamma rays
 Question 2
Electromagnetic waves of wavelength ranging from 100 Å to Å comes under
 A X-rays B UV regions C Visible region D Infrared region
 Question 3
Electromagnetic theory suggests that the light consists of
 A magnetic vector only B electric vector only C electric and magnetic vectors perpendicular to each other D perpendicular electric and magnetic vector
 Question 4
The electromagnetic waves travel in free space with the velocity of
 A sound B light C greater than that of light D greater than that of sound
 Question 5
The existence of electromagnetic waves were experimentally confirmed by
 A Maxwell B Faraday C Hertz D Tesla
 Question 6
The back emf in a DC motor is maximum when,
 A the motor has picked up maximum speed B the motor has just started moving C the speed of motor is still on increase D the motor has just been switched off
 Question 7
AC measuring instruments measuring
 A peak value B rms value C any value D average value
 Question 8
In a step-down transformer, the number of turns in
 A primary are less B primary are more C primary and secondary are equal D secondary are infinite
 Question 9
In AC circuits choke is preferred to resistors because
 A choke coil is cheap B voltage increases C energy is not wasted D current increases
 Question 10
A choke coil is used as resistance in
 A AC circuits B DC circuits C half wave rectifier circuits D Both in AC and DC circuits
 Question 11
A transformer works on
 A DC only B AC only C Both AC and DC D high voltage only
 Question 12
Alternating voltage
 A is independent of time B varies directly with time C varies inversely with time D varies sinusoidaly with time
 Question 13
The law of electromagnetic induction have been used in the construction of
 A generator B electric motor C galvanometer D None of the above
 Question 14
Power consumed in an AC circuit becomes zero if
 A inductance and resistance are both high B inductance and resistance are both low C inductance very high and resistance negligible D inductance low and resistance high
 Question 15
A lamp is connected is series with a capacitor and an AC source, what happens if the capacity of the capacitor is reduced?
 A The lamp shines more brightly B The lamp shines less brightly C There is no change in the brightness of the lamp D Brightness may increase or decrease depending on the frequency of the AC
 Question 16
A transformer is a device which converts
 A low voltage at low current into high voltage at high current B high voltage at low current into low voltage at high current C high voltage at high current into low voltage at low current D electrical power into mechanical power
 Question 17
If the conductance and capacitance are both doubled in L-C circuit, the resonant frequency of the circuit will
 A decrease to one-half the original value B decrease to one-fourth the original value C increase to twice the original value D decrease to twice the original value
 Question 18
If the power factor in a circuit is unit, then the impedance of the circuit is
 A inductive B capacitive C partially inductive and partially capacitive D resistive
 Question 19
One complete set of negative and positive values of alternating quantities is called
 A time period B amplitude C frequency D cycle
 Question 20
Inductive reactance of a coil is expressed in
 A ampere B ohm C volt D Weber
 Question 21
An inductor may store energy in
 A its electric field B its coil C its magnetic field D Both electric and magnetic field
 Question 22
Two different coils have self inductance 8 mH and 2 mH. The current in both coil are increased at same constant rate. The ratio of the induced emf’s in the coil is
 A 4 : 1 B 1 : 4 C 1 : 2 D 2 : 1
 Question 23
A coil of resistance 5 Ω and inductance 4 H is connected to a 10 V battery. The energy stored in the coil
 A 0.8 J B 8 J C 16 J D 4 J
 Question 24
The instrument which works on the principle of mutual inductance is
 A galvanometer B ammeter C potentiometer D transformer
 Question 25
Lenz’s low is a consequence of low of conservation of
 A energy only B change only C momentum only D energy and momentum
 Question 26
Two blocks A and B each of 20 kg lying on a frictionless table are connected by a light string. The system is pulled horizontally with an acceleration of 2 ms-2 by a force F on B. The tension in the string will be
 A 10 N B 40 N C 100 N D 120 N
 Question 27
A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a string A. Another string C is connected to its lower end as shows in figure. If a sudden jerk is given to C, then
 A the mass will start rotating B the portion AB of the string will break C the portion BC of the string will break D None of the string will break
 Question 28
An elevator is moving vertically up with an acceleration a the force exerted on the floor by a passenger of mass m is
 A mg B ma C mg – ma D mg + ma
 Question 29
A body weighing 20 kg just slides down a rough inclined plane that rises 5 in 12. The coefficient of friction is
 A 0.46 B 4.6 C 0.52 D 0.12
 Question 30
A solid ball of volume V is dropped in a viscous liquid. It experiences a viscous force F. If the solid ball of volume 2 V of same material is dropped in the same fluid, then the viscous force acting on it will be
 A nF/2 B F/2 C 2 F D 2 nF
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## MH CET Online Mock Test = Chemistry

Congratulations - you have completed MH CET Online Mock Test = Chemistry.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
 Question 1
Which of the following is not a isomer of pentane?
 A n-pentane B 2,2-dimethyl 1-propane C 2,3-dimethyl 1-butane D 2-methyl 1-butane
 Question 2
Which of the following is not an iron ore?
 A Malachite B Hematite C Siderite D Limonite
 Question 3
Which of the following compound is not aromatic?
 A 1, 3-cyclobutene B Pyridine C Furane D Thiophene
 Question 4
LPG mainly consist of the following
 A Methane B hydrogen C acetylene D butane
 Question 5
The nature of 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol is
 A neutral B basic C acidic D weak basic
 Question 6
By which of the following process hydrocarbons are found from petroleum?
 A Combustion B Fractional distillation C Addition D All of the above
 Question 7
Which of the following statement is false?
 A 40% solution HCHO is known as formalin B HCHO is least reactive in its homologous series C The boiling point of iso-vareladehyde is less then n-varelaldehyde (4) D The boiling point of ketones are higher than that of aldehydes
 Question 8
The reaction of sodium acetate and sodalime gives
 A butane B ethane C methane D propane
 Question 9
Which of the following acids does not contain –COOH group?
 A Carbamic acid B Barbituric acid C Lactic acid D Succinic acid
 Question 10
The strongest acid is
 A acetic acid B trichloroacetic acid C dichloroacetic acid D monochloroacetic acid
 Question 11
Which of the following aromatic compound gives sulphonation reaction very easily?
 A Chlorobenzene B Nitrobenzene C Toluene D Benzene
 Question 12
The volume concentration of hydrogen peroxide having 6.8% concentration will be
 A 5 B 11.2 C 22.3 D 20
 Question 13
Which of the following on combustion gives maximum energy?
 A Ethane B Propane C Methane D Butane
 Question 14
The natural rubber is the polymer of
 A 1,3-butadiene B polyamide C isoprene D None of these
 Question 15
Nylone-66 is a
 A polyester B polyamide C polyacrylate D None of these
 Question 16
The tetraethyl lead mixed in petrol works as
 A cooling agent B ant-knocking agent C bleaching agent D None of these
 Question 17
The alkaline hydrolysis of ester is known as
 A dehydrogenation B dehydration C esterification D saponification
 Question 18
The minimum numbers of carbon atoms in ketones which will show chain isomerism will be
 A 7 B 4 C 6 D 5
 Question 19
C –H bond length is least in
 A acetylene B methane C ethylene D ethane
 Question 20
Which of the following compound forms white precipitate with bromine water?
 A Nitrobenzene B Phenol C Benzene D All of these
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There are 20 questions to complete.
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## MH CET Online Mock Test = Biology

Congratulations - you have completed MH CET Online Mock Test = Biology.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
 Question 1
A test-cross distinguishes between
 A a homozygous dominant and the heterozygous form B a homozygous recessive and the heterozygous form C two homozygous form D two heterozygous form
 Question 2
According to modern colloidal theory, the protoplasm is a polyphasic colloidal system. This was first suggested by
 A Purkinje B Max Schultz C RA Fisher D E Strassburger
 Question 3
The scientific name of oyster mushroom, an edible fungus is
 A Tolyposporium penicillarie B Colletotrichum falcatum C Pleurotus osteratus D Citromyces purpurogenum
 Question 4
Verticillaster inflorescence is the characteristic of family
 A Cucurbitaceae B Rubiaceae C Labiatae D Asteraceae
 Question 5
In cyathium inflorescence, the ratio between male : female flower is
 A one : one B one : many C many : one D many : many
 Question 6
If a call A with DPD 4 bars is connected to cell B, C and D whose Osmotic Pressure (OP) and Turgor Pressure (TP) are respectively 4 and 4, 10 and 5, 7 and 3 bars, the flow of water will be
 A B to A, C and D B A and D to B and C C C to A, B and D D A to B, C and D
 Question 7
Which one of the following is not a synthetic auxin?
 A 2, 4-D B IBA C IPA D IAA
 Question 8
The usual shape of growth curve is
 A sigmoid B zig-zag C linear D inverted bell-shaped
 Question 9
The beginning of plant cultivation is considered to be taken place in
 A Neolithic B Paleolithic C Mesolithic D None of these
 Question 10
.  Which of the following group is not comprised of sac-fungi?
 A Yeasts B Truffles C Mushrooms D Morels
 Question 11
Choose the incorrect one pair
 A nucleus-RNA B lysosome-protein synthesis C mitochondria-respiration D cytoskeleton-microtubules
 Question 12
More advancement in genetic engineering is due to
 A restriction endonuclease B reverse transcriptase C protease D zymase
 Question 13
Rough endoplasmic reticulum is associated with
 A fat synthesis B steroid synthesis C protein synthesis D All of these
 Question 14
In lung, maximum gaseous exchange is due to
 A simple diffusion B active transport C passive transport D fascilitated diffusion
 Question 15
Resolving power of electron microscope is
 A 1 Å B 10 Å C 100 Å D 1000 Å
 Question 16
The female children of haemophilic father and carrier mother
 A all haemophilic B half haemophilic, half carrier C all normal D all carrier
 Question 17
Number of Barr bodies in XXXXY is
 A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4
 Question 18
Natural system of classification is given by
 A Bentham and Hooker B Carolus Linnaeus C Charles Darwin D Engler and Prantl
 Question 19
Leaves of grasses roll and unroll due to
 A hormonal change B change in temperature C change in turgor pressure D presence of bulliform apparatus
 Question 20
Stomata open and close due to
 A turgor pressure change B hormonal change C temperature change D All of the above
 Question 21
Which of the following enzymes helps in crossing plasma membrane?
 A Protease B Pepsin C Dehydrogenase D Permease
 Question 22
Antiparallel strands in DNA is due to
 A disulphide linkage B hydrogen bond C phosphodiester bond D glycosidic bond
 Question 23
In which species of paramecium, autogamy is found?
 A Paramecium caudatum B Paramecium Aurelia C Paramecium fursaria D All of the above
 Question 24
Coat’s disease is related with
 A eye B liver C brain D pancreas
 Question 25
The study of the energy transfer and relationships between all living organisms is known as
 A thermodynamics B bioenergetics C kinetic energy D potential energy
 Question 26
The infective stage of Fasciola hepatica to sheep is
 A sporocyst B cercaria C metacercaria D hexacanth
 Question 27
Which of the following algae shows physiological anisogmay?
 A Spirogyra B Ulothrix C Volvox D All of these
 Question 28
In Funaria, the number of peristomial teeth is
 A 8 B 16 C 32 D 64
 Question 29
The niche of a population is the
 A set of conditions that interacts B place where it lives C set of conditions and resources it uses D geographical area that it covers
 Question 30
Periblem is gives rise to
 A epidermis B cortex C pericycle D pitch
 Question 31
The external and internal parts of cerebrospinal fluid are connected through the roof of
 A epithalamus B filum terminate C cerebral ventricles D medulla oblongata
 Question 32
Vasopressin influences
 A electrolyte efflux B nerve excitability C water reabsorption D All of the above
 Question 33
Widal test is performed for
 A malarial fever B cholera C typhoid fever D dengue fever
 Question 34
Pheromones when secreted upon the skin surface, its odour generally affected by
 A skin colour B genitalia C breast D mutual behavior of members of a species
 Question 35
Rate of mutation is affected by
 A temperature B X-rays C gamma and beta radiations D All of the above
 Question 36
A parenchymatous cell, which stores ergostic materials or waste substance is
 A idioblast B phragmoblast C blastomere D None of these
 Question 37
Which of the following is applied for the biological control of cotton scale insect pest?
 A Rhodalia cardinalis B Aleurolobus burodensis C Pectinophora gossypila D Both (a) and (b)
 Question 38
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the anatomy of dicotyledonous roots?
 A Presence of little pith or absent B Radial vascular bundles C Presence of 15-20 vascular bundles D Secondary growth
 Question 39
The number of male prothallial cells in Selaginella plant is
 A one B two C twelve D numerous
 Question 40
Yeast is different from penicillium and Rhizopus in being
 A acellular B unicellular C having unseptate hyphae D multicellular
 Question 41
Which response Amoeba shows towards current of water?
 A Galvanotaxis B Rheotaxis C Geotaxis D Thigmotaxis
 Question 42
When more than one species of Plasmodium infect a person, it is called?
 A quartan malaria B tertian malaria C aestivo-autumnal malaria D quotidian malaria
 Question 43
Photoperiodic response of red far-red wavelength is mediated by
 A phytochrome B cytochrome C ferredoxin D plastocyanin
 Question 44
Tissue that contains fat globules is known as
 A duraepithelium B adipose tissue C nepiepithelium D None of these
 Question 45
Which of the following inactivates the enzyme by changing its shape?
 A Competitive inhibitor B Allosteric enzyme C Co-enzyme D All of the above
 Question 46
Freshly hatched larva of housefly is called
 A caterpillar B maggot C nymoh D grub
 Question 47
Enzymes that catalyse endergonic synthesis, coupled with exergonic hydrolysis of ATP are
 A ligases B isomerases C lyases D transferases
 Question 48
Gas exchange in the gills of a teleost fish is enhanced by having the blood flow in direction opposite to the direction of water flow, a process known as
 A counter current exchange B ventilation C facilitated diffusion D active respiration
 Question 49
Parkinson’s disease is associated with
 A midbrain B thalamus C hypothalamus D cerebrum
 Question 50
The branch of science dealing with the study of congenitally deformed foetus is called
 A Teratology B Gerontology C Nidology D None of these
 Question 51
Sub-kingdom-Parazoa includes
 A Protozoa B Porifera C Metazoa D None of these
 Question 52
Non-essential amino acids, are synthesized in the human body during
 A protein catabolism B protein anabolism C Both (a) and (b) D None of these
 Question 53
Sharpey’s perforating fibres are related with
 A contraction of muscles B relaxation of muscles C fixing of teeth D None of the above
 Question 54
Free martin is an example of
 A hormonal controlled unlike sexed twins B sex reversal by gene C environmental control of sex D None of the above
 Question 55
The polio virus enters the human body through
 A mosquito bite B tick bite C saliva and secretions from the nose D contaminated food and water
 Question 56
When there is no change in muscle length during contraction, it is called
 A isometric B isotonic C isostasis D refractory period
 Question 57
Which of the following organ has papillary muscles?
 A Eyes B Brain C Heart D Mammary glands
 Question 58
Cytochrome is a
 A Mg pyrole ring B Fe porphyrin ring C nucleotide D alloy of nichrome
 Question 59
Placentation in ‘Brassicaceae’ is
 A parietal B marginal C axile D basal
 Question 60
Rauwolffia serpentina is used in
 A curing high blood pressure B kidney failure C eye defect D diabetes
 Question 61
Which one of the following is agranulocyte?
 A Neutrophil B Eosinophil C Basophil D Monocyte
 Question 62
Who is the father of ‘Indian Bryology’?
 A OP Iyengar B S Kashyap C EJ Butler D R Mishra
 Question 63
Which one is absent in frog?
 A Phrenic nerve B Renal portal vein C Both (a) and (b) D None of the above
 Question 64
Poison gland in snake is located in
 A Parietal B Maxilla C mandible D neck
 Question 65
Eugene P Odum is a
 A bryologist B ecologist C gerontologist D neurologist
 Question 66
Which of the following is not endocrine gland?
 A Thyroid B Adrenal C gerontologist D neurologist
 Question 67
Animal protected in Kaziranga National pack is
 A tiger B lion C elephant D rhinoceros
 Question 68
In 125 amino acid sequence if 25 amino acid is mutated to UAA, then
 A a polypeptide of 124 amino acid is formed B a polypeptide of 25 amino acid is formed C a polypeptide of 24 amino acid is formed D any of the above can be possible
 Question 69
In gastrulation, which is (are) formed?
 A Endodern B Mesodern C Ectoderm and endoderm D Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm
 Question 70
In embryo sec, n, 2n, 3n conditions are found respectively in
 A egg, antipodal and endosperm B nucleus, endosperm and egg C antipodal, zygote and endosperm D endosperm, nucleus and egg
 Question 71
Krebs’ cycle takes place in
 A mitochondrial matrix B cytoplasm C lysosome D nucleus
 Question 72
Which of the following is monogenetic parasite?
 A Entamoeba histolytica B Taenia solium C Wauchereria bancrofti D Plasmodium vivax
 Question 73
Stratified squamous epithelium is found in
 A pharyny B trachea C ileum D Bowman’s capsule
 Question 74
Which one is polymer?
 A Sucrose B Glycogen C Fructose D Lactose
 Question 75
In cell division, spindle fibres are made up of protein
 A myoglobin B tubulin C albumin D myosin
 Question 76
In photosynthesis, for fixation of one mole of glucose number of ATP and NADPH2 required is
 A 12 and 18 B 18 and 12 C 6 and 12 D 18 and 18
 Question 77
Species, which is in danger of extinction is
 A endangered B vulnerable C rare D critically endangered
 Question 78
Mollusca is
 A triploblastic and acoelomate B triploblastic and coelomate C diploblastic and acoelomate D diploblastic and coelomate
 Question 79
Cyathium and hypanthodium inflorescence are related in having
 A nectar glands B unisexual flower C Both (a) and (b) D None of these
 Question 80
Exarch and polyarch condition found in
 A monocot stem B dicot stem C monocot root D dicot root
 Question 81
Fruiting body of Penicillium is
 A cleistothecium B pycniophysis C sterigmata D None of these
 Question 82
Sperm of Cycas is
 A multiflagellated and very large B small and biflagellated C multiflagellated and small D large and biflagellated
 Question 83
For nitrogen fixation, pigment useful is
 A nitrogenase B haemoglobin C myoglobin D leghaemoglobin
 Question 84
Sal and teak are found in
 A tropical rain forest B tropical deciduous forest C temperate board left forest D temperate needle left forest
 Question 85
In plasmolysed cell, the space between nucleus and plasma membrane is occupied by
 A hypotonic solution B hypertonic solution C isotonic solution D air
 Question 86
During oogenis, the small structure separated from egg is
 A polar bodies B secondary endosperm C Herring bodies D Hela cells
 Question 87
Structural and functional unit of kidney is
 A neuron B nephron C lungs D Schwann’s cells
 Question 88
Which hexaploid wheat is used to make bread?
 A Triticum turgidum B Triticum durum C Triticum monococcum D Triticum aestivum
 Question 89
When pollen grains are not transferred from anthers to stigma in a flower, due to the barrier, it is called
 A herkogamy B heterogamy C cleistogamy D dichogamy
 Question 90
Which of the following is not the main function of lymph glands?
 A Forming WBC B Forming RBC C Forming antibodies D Destroying bacteria
 Question 91
What is the name of cycle, which generates energy and splits water into hydrogen and oxygen?
 A Glycolysis B Photophosphorylation C Citric acid cycle D Electron transport cycle
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect.
There are 91 questions to complete.
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#### MH CET Mock Practice Test Online

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