MH CET Mock Practice Test Online

Maharashtra Common entrance test-Maharashtra (MH CET) MCQ Questions Answers for medical entrance exams subjects : Maths, Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology). This mock test having 25 questions in each subjects, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this MH CET test question details at the end of the quiz.

MH CET questions answers are applicable for any kind of medical entrance test (UG) , engineering entrance  and Pharmacy entrance preparation in India. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers Maharashtra CET critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking all India level exam.

For more resources you can go through MH CET Previous Year Question Papers Answers.

Congratulations - you have completed MH CET Online Mock Test = Physics. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which of the following is not an electromagnetic wave?  
A
Light rays
B
X- rays
C
Alpha rays
D
Gamma rays
Question 2
Electromagnetic waves of wavelength ranging from 100 Å to Å comes under  
A
X-rays
B
UV regions
C
Visible region
D
Infrared region
Question 3
Electromagnetic theory suggests that the light consists of  
A
magnetic vector only
B
electric vector only
C
electric and magnetic vectors perpendicular to each other
D
perpendicular electric and magnetic vector
Question 4
The electromagnetic waves travel in free space with the velocity of  
A
sound
B
light
C
greater than that of light
D
greater than that of sound
Question 5
The existence of electromagnetic waves were experimentally confirmed by  
A
Maxwell
B
Faraday
C
Hertz
D
Tesla
Question 6
The back emf in a DC motor is maximum when,  
A
the motor has picked up maximum speed
B
the motor has just started moving
C
the speed of motor is still on increase
D
the motor has just been switched off
Question 7
AC measuring instruments measuring  
A
peak value
B
rms value
C
any value
D
average value
Question 8
In a step-down transformer, the number of turns in  
A
primary are less
B
primary are more
C
primary and secondary are equal
D
secondary are infinite
Question 9
In AC circuits choke is preferred to resistors because  
A
choke coil is cheap
B
voltage increases
C
energy is not wasted
D
current increases
Question 10
A choke coil is used as resistance in  
A
AC circuits
B
DC circuits
C
half wave rectifier circuits
D
Both in AC and DC circuits
Question 11
A transformer works on  
A
DC only
B
AC only
C
Both AC and DC
D
high voltage only
Question 12
Alternating voltage  
A
is independent of time
B
varies directly with time
C
varies inversely with time
D
varies sinusoidaly with time
Question 13
The law of electromagnetic induction have been used in the construction of  
A
generator
B
electric motor
C
galvanometer
D
None of the above
Question 14
Power consumed in an AC circuit becomes zero if  
A
inductance and resistance are both high
B
inductance and resistance are both low
C
inductance very high and resistance negligible
D
inductance low and resistance high
Question 15
A lamp is connected is series with a capacitor and an AC source, what happens if the capacity of the capacitor is reduced?  
A
The lamp shines more brightly
B
The lamp shines less brightly
C
There is no change in the brightness of the lamp
D
Brightness may increase or decrease depending on the frequency of the AC
Question 16
A transformer is a device which converts  
A
low voltage at low current into high voltage at high current
B
high voltage at low current into low voltage at high current
C
high voltage at high current into low voltage at low current
D
electrical power into mechanical power
Question 17
If the conductance and capacitance are both doubled in L-C circuit, the resonant frequency of the circuit will  
A
decrease to one-half the original value
B
decrease to one-fourth the original value
C
increase to twice the original value
D
decrease to twice the original value
Question 18
If the power factor in a circuit is unit, then the impedance of the circuit is  
A
inductive
B
capacitive
C
partially inductive and partially capacitive
D
resistive
Question 19
One complete set of negative and positive values of alternating quantities is called  
A
time period
B
amplitude
C
frequency
D
cycle
Question 20
Inductive reactance of a coil is expressed in  
A
ampere
B
ohm
C
volt
D
Weber
Question 21
An inductor may store energy in  
A
its electric field
B
its coil
C
its magnetic field
D
Both electric and magnetic field
Question 22
Two different coils have self inductance 8 mH and 2 mH. The current in both coil are increased at same constant rate. The ratio of the induced emf’s in the coil is  
A
4 : 1
B
1 : 4
C
1 : 2
D
2 : 1
Question 23
A coil of resistance 5 Ω and inductance 4 H is connected to a 10 V battery. The energy stored in the coil  
A
0.8 J
B
8 J
C
16 J
D
4 J
Question 24
The instrument which works on the principle of mutual inductance is  
A
galvanometer
B
ammeter
C
potentiometer
D
transformer
Question 25
Lenz’s low is a consequence of low of conservation of  
A
energy only
B
change only
C
momentum only
D
energy and momentum
Question 26
Two blocks A and B each of 20 kg lying on a frictionless table are connected by a light string. The system is pulled horizontally with an acceleration of 2 ms-2 by a force F on B. The tension in the string will be  
A
10 N
B
40 N
C
100 N
D
120 N
Question 27
A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a string A. Another string C is connected to its lower end as shows in figure. If a sudden jerk is given to C, then  
A
the mass will start rotating
B
the portion AB of the string will break
C
the portion BC of the string will break
D
None of the string will break
Question 28
An elevator is moving vertically up with an acceleration a the force exerted on the floor by a passenger of mass m is  
A
mg
B
ma
C
mg – ma
D
mg + ma
Question 29
A body weighing 20 kg just slides down a rough inclined plane that rises 5 in 12. The coefficient of friction is  
A
0.46
B
4.6
C
0.52
D
0.12
Question 30
A solid ball of volume V is dropped in a viscous liquid. It experiences a viscous force F. If the solid ball of volume 2 V of same material is dropped in the same fluid, then the viscous force acting on it will be  
A
nF/2
B
F/2
C
2 F
D
2 nF
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MH CET Online Mock Test = Chemistry

Congratulations - you have completed MH CET Online Mock Test = Chemistry. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which of the following is not a isomer of pentane?  
A
n-pentane
B
2,2-dimethyl 1-propane
C
2,3-dimethyl 1-butane
D
2-methyl 1-butane
Question 2
Which of the following is not an iron ore?  
A
Malachite
B
Hematite
C
Siderite
D
Limonite
Question 3
Which of the following compound is not aromatic?  
A
1, 3-cyclobutene
B
Pyridine
C
Furane
D
Thiophene
Question 4
LPG mainly consist of the following  
A
Methane
B
hydrogen
C
acetylene
D
butane
Question 5
The nature of 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol is  
A
neutral
B
basic
C
acidic
D
weak basic
Question 6
By which of the following process hydrocarbons are found from petroleum?  
A
Combustion
B
Fractional distillation
C
Addition
D
All of the above
Question 7
Which of the following statement is false?  
A
40% solution HCHO is known as formalin
B
HCHO is least reactive in its homologous series
C
The boiling point of iso-vareladehyde is less then n-varelaldehyde (4)
D
The boiling point of ketones are higher than that of aldehydes
Question 8
The reaction of sodium acetate and sodalime gives  
A
butane
B
ethane
C
methane
D
propane
Question 9
Which of the following acids does not contain –COOH group?  
A
Carbamic acid
B
Barbituric acid
C
Lactic acid
D
Succinic acid
Question 10
The strongest acid is  
A
acetic acid
B
trichloroacetic acid
C
dichloroacetic acid
D
monochloroacetic acid
Question 11
Which of the following aromatic compound gives sulphonation reaction very easily?  
A
Chlorobenzene
B
Nitrobenzene
C
Toluene
D
Benzene
Question 12
The volume concentration of hydrogen peroxide having 6.8% concentration will be  
A
5
B
11.2
C
22.3
D
20
Question 13
Which of the following on combustion gives maximum energy?  
A
Ethane
B
Propane
C
Methane
D
Butane
Question 14
The natural rubber is the polymer of  
A
1,3-butadiene
B
polyamide
C
isoprene
D
None of these
Question 15
Nylone-66 is a  
A
polyester
B
polyamide
C
polyacrylate
D
None of these
Question 16
The tetraethyl lead mixed in petrol works as  
A
cooling agent
B
ant-knocking agent
C
bleaching agent
D
None of these
Question 17
The alkaline hydrolysis of ester is known as  
A
dehydrogenation
B
dehydration
C
esterification
D
saponification
Question 18
The minimum numbers of carbon atoms in ketones which will show chain isomerism will be  
A
7
B
4
C
6
D
5
Question 19
C –H bond length is least in  
A
acetylene
B
methane
C
ethylene
D
ethane
Question 20
Which of the following compound forms white precipitate with bromine water?  
A
Nitrobenzene
B
Phenol
C
Benzene
D
All of these
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MH CET Online Mock Test = Biology

Congratulations - you have completed MH CET Online Mock Test = Biology. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
A test-cross distinguishes between  
A
a homozygous dominant and the heterozygous form
B
a homozygous recessive and the heterozygous form
C
two homozygous form
D
two heterozygous form
Question 2
According to modern colloidal theory, the protoplasm is a polyphasic colloidal system. This was first suggested by  
A
Purkinje
B
Max Schultz
C
RA Fisher
D
E Strassburger
Question 3
The scientific name of oyster mushroom, an edible fungus is  
A
Tolyposporium penicillarie
B
Colletotrichum falcatum
C
Pleurotus osteratus
D
Citromyces purpurogenum
Question 4
Verticillaster inflorescence is the characteristic of family  
A
Cucurbitaceae
B
Rubiaceae
C
Labiatae
D
Asteraceae
Question 5
In cyathium inflorescence, the ratio between male : female flower is  
A
one : one
B
one : many
C
many : one
D
many : many
Question 6
If a call A with DPD 4 bars is connected to cell B, C and D whose Osmotic Pressure (OP) and Turgor Pressure (TP) are respectively 4 and 4, 10 and 5, 7 and 3 bars, the flow of water will be  
A
B to A, C and D
B
A and D to B and C
C
C to A, B and D
D
A to B, C and D
Question 7
Which one of the following is not a synthetic auxin?  
A
2, 4-D
B
IBA
C
IPA
D
IAA
Question 8
The usual shape of growth curve is  
A
sigmoid
B
zig-zag
C
linear
D
inverted bell-shaped
Question 9
The beginning of plant cultivation is considered to be taken place in  
A
Neolithic
B
Paleolithic
C
Mesolithic
D
None of these
Question 10
.  Which of the following group is not comprised of sac-fungi?  
A
Yeasts
B
Truffles
C
Mushrooms
D
Morels
Question 11
Choose the incorrect one pair  
A
nucleus-RNA
B
lysosome-protein synthesis
C
mitochondria-respiration
D
cytoskeleton-microtubules
Question 12
More advancement in genetic engineering is due to  
A
restriction endonuclease
B
reverse transcriptase
C
protease
D
zymase
Question 13
Rough endoplasmic reticulum is associated with  
A
fat synthesis
B
steroid synthesis
C
protein synthesis
D
All of these
Question 14
In lung, maximum gaseous exchange is due to  
A
simple diffusion
B
active transport
C
passive transport
D
fascilitated diffusion
Question 15
Resolving power of electron microscope is  
A
1 Å
B
10 Å
C
100 Å
D
1000 Å
Question 16
The female children of haemophilic father and carrier mother  
A
all haemophilic
B
half haemophilic, half carrier
C
all normal
D
all carrier
Question 17
Number of Barr bodies in XXXXY is  
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 18
Natural system of classification is given by  
A
Bentham and Hooker
B
Carolus Linnaeus
C
Charles Darwin
D
Engler and Prantl
Question 19
Leaves of grasses roll and unroll due to  
A
hormonal change
B
change in temperature
C
change in turgor pressure
D
presence of bulliform apparatus
Question 20
Stomata open and close due to  
A
turgor pressure change
B
hormonal change
C
temperature change
D
All of the above
Question 21
Which of the following enzymes helps in crossing plasma membrane?  
A
Protease
B
Pepsin
C
Dehydrogenase
D
Permease
Question 22
Antiparallel strands in DNA is due to  
A
disulphide linkage
B
hydrogen bond
C
phosphodiester bond
D
glycosidic bond
Question 23
In which species of paramecium, autogamy is found?  
A
Paramecium caudatum
B
Paramecium Aurelia
C
Paramecium fursaria
D
All of the above
Question 24
Coat’s disease is related with  
A
eye
B
liver
C
brain
D
pancreas
Question 25
The study of the energy transfer and relationships between all living organisms is known as  
A
thermodynamics
B
bioenergetics
C
kinetic energy
D
potential energy
Question 26
The infective stage of Fasciola hepatica to sheep is  
A
sporocyst
B
cercaria
C
metacercaria
D
hexacanth
Question 27
Which of the following algae shows physiological anisogmay?  
A
Spirogyra
B
Ulothrix
C
Volvox
D
All of these
Question 28
In Funaria, the number of peristomial teeth is  
A
8
B
16
C
32
D
64
Question 29
The niche of a population is the  
A
set of conditions that interacts
B
place where it lives
C
set of conditions and resources it uses
D
geographical area that it covers
Question 30
Periblem is gives rise to  
A
epidermis
B
cortex
C
pericycle
D
pitch
Question 31
The external and internal parts of cerebrospinal fluid are connected through the roof of  
A
epithalamus
B
filum terminate
C
cerebral ventricles
D
medulla oblongata
Question 32
Vasopressin influences  
A
electrolyte efflux
B
nerve excitability
C
water reabsorption
D
All of the above
Question 33
Widal test is performed for  
A
malarial fever
B
cholera
C
typhoid fever
D
dengue fever
Question 34
Pheromones when secreted upon the skin surface, its odour generally affected by  
A
skin colour
B
genitalia
C
breast
D
mutual behavior of members of a species
Question 35
Rate of mutation is affected by  
A
temperature
B
X-rays
C
gamma and beta radiations
D
All of the above
Question 36
A parenchymatous cell, which stores ergostic materials or waste substance is  
A
idioblast
B
phragmoblast
C
blastomere
D
None of these
Question 37
Which of the following is applied for the biological control of cotton scale insect pest?  
A
Rhodalia cardinalis
B
Aleurolobus burodensis
C
Pectinophora gossypila
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 38
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the anatomy of dicotyledonous roots?  
A
Presence of little pith or absent
B
Radial vascular bundles
C
Presence of 15-20 vascular bundles
D
Secondary growth
Question 39
The number of male prothallial cells in Selaginella plant is  
A
one
B
two
C
twelve
D
numerous
Question 40
Yeast is different from penicillium and Rhizopus in being  
A
acellular
B
unicellular
C
having unseptate hyphae
D
multicellular
Question 41
Which response Amoeba shows towards current of water?  
A
Galvanotaxis
B
Rheotaxis
C
Geotaxis
D
Thigmotaxis
Question 42
When more than one species of Plasmodium infect a person, it is called?  
A
quartan malaria
B
tertian malaria
C
aestivo-autumnal malaria
D
quotidian malaria
Question 43
Photoperiodic response of red far-red wavelength is mediated by  
A
phytochrome
B
cytochrome
C
ferredoxin
D
plastocyanin
Question 44
Tissue that contains fat globules is known as  
A
duraepithelium
B
adipose tissue
C
nepiepithelium
D
None of these
Question 45
Which of the following inactivates the enzyme by changing its shape?  
A
Competitive inhibitor
B
Allosteric enzyme
C
Co-enzyme
D
All of the above
Question 46
Freshly hatched larva of housefly is called  
A
caterpillar
B
maggot
C
nymoh
D
grub
Question 47
Enzymes that catalyse endergonic synthesis, coupled with exergonic hydrolysis of ATP are  
A
ligases
B
isomerases
C
lyases
D
transferases
Question 48
Gas exchange in the gills of a teleost fish is enhanced by having the blood flow in direction opposite to the direction of water flow, a process known as  
A
counter current exchange
B
ventilation
C
facilitated diffusion
D
active respiration
Question 49
Parkinson’s disease is associated with  
A
midbrain
B
thalamus
C
hypothalamus
D
cerebrum
Question 50
The branch of science dealing with the study of congenitally deformed foetus is called  
A
Teratology
B
Gerontology
C
Nidology
D
None of these
Question 51
Sub-kingdom-Parazoa includes  
A
Protozoa
B
Porifera
C
Metazoa
D
None of these
Question 52
Non-essential amino acids, are synthesized in the human body during  
A
protein catabolism
B
protein anabolism
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of these
Question 53
Sharpey’s perforating fibres are related with  
A
contraction of muscles
B
relaxation of muscles
C
fixing of teeth
D
None of the above
Question 54
Free martin is an example of  
A
hormonal controlled unlike sexed twins
B
sex reversal by gene
C
environmental control of sex
D
None of the above
Question 55
The polio virus enters the human body through  
A
mosquito bite
B
tick bite
C
saliva and secretions from the nose
D
contaminated food and water
Question 56
When there is no change in muscle length during contraction, it is called  
A
isometric
B
isotonic
C
isostasis
D
refractory period
Question 57
Which of the following organ has papillary muscles?  
A
Eyes
B
Brain
C
Heart
D
Mammary glands
Question 58
Cytochrome is a  
A
Mg pyrole ring
B
Fe porphyrin ring
C
nucleotide
D
alloy of nichrome
Question 59
Placentation in ‘Brassicaceae’ is  
A
parietal
B
marginal
C
axile
D
basal
Question 60
Rauwolffia serpentina is used in  
A
curing high blood pressure
B
kidney failure
C
eye defect
D
diabetes
Question 61
Which one of the following is agranulocyte?  
A
Neutrophil
B
Eosinophil
C
Basophil
D
Monocyte
Question 62
Who is the father of ‘Indian Bryology’?  
A
OP Iyengar
B
S Kashyap
C
EJ Butler
D
R Mishra
Question 63
Which one is absent in frog?  
A
Phrenic nerve
B
Renal portal vein
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 64
Poison gland in snake is located in  
A
Parietal
B
Maxilla
C
mandible
D
neck
Question 65
Eugene P Odum is a  
A
bryologist
B
ecologist
C
gerontologist
D
neurologist
Question 66
Which of the following is not endocrine gland?  
A
Thyroid
B
Adrenal
C
gerontologist
D
neurologist
Question 67
Animal protected in Kaziranga National pack is  
A
tiger
B
lion
C
elephant
D
rhinoceros
Question 68
In 125 amino acid sequence if 25 amino acid is mutated to UAA, then  
A
a polypeptide of 124 amino acid is formed
B
a polypeptide of 25 amino acid is formed
C
a polypeptide of 24 amino acid is formed
D
any of the above can be possible
Question 69
In gastrulation, which is (are) formed?  
A
Endodern
B
Mesodern
C
Ectoderm and endoderm
D
Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm
Question 70
In embryo sec, n, 2n, 3n conditions are found respectively in  
A
egg, antipodal and endosperm
B
nucleus, endosperm and egg
C
antipodal, zygote and endosperm
D
endosperm, nucleus and egg
Question 71
Krebs’ cycle takes place in  
A
mitochondrial matrix
B
cytoplasm
C
lysosome
D
nucleus
Question 72
Which of the following is monogenetic parasite?  
A
Entamoeba histolytica
B
Taenia solium
C
Wauchereria bancrofti
D
Plasmodium vivax
Question 73
Stratified squamous epithelium is found in  
A
pharyny
B
trachea
C
ileum
D
Bowman’s capsule
Question 74
Which one is polymer?  
A
Sucrose
B
Glycogen
C
Fructose
D
Lactose
Question 75
In cell division, spindle fibres are made up of protein  
A
myoglobin
B
tubulin
C
albumin
D
myosin
Question 76
In photosynthesis, for fixation of one mole of glucose number of ATP and NADPH2 required is  
A
12 and 18
B
18 and 12
C
6 and 12
D
18 and 18
Question 77
Species, which is in danger of extinction is  
A
endangered
B
vulnerable
C
rare
D
critically endangered
Question 78
Mollusca is  
A
triploblastic and acoelomate
B
triploblastic and coelomate
C
diploblastic and acoelomate
D
diploblastic and coelomate
Question 79
Cyathium and hypanthodium inflorescence are related in having  
A
nectar glands
B
unisexual flower
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of these
Question 80
Exarch and polyarch condition found in  
A
monocot stem
B
dicot stem
C
monocot root
D
dicot root
Question 81
Fruiting body of Penicillium is  
A
cleistothecium
B
pycniophysis
C
sterigmata
D
None of these
Question 82
Sperm of Cycas is  
A
multiflagellated and very large
B
small and biflagellated
C
multiflagellated and small
D
large and biflagellated
Question 83
For nitrogen fixation, pigment useful is  
A
nitrogenase
B
haemoglobin
C
myoglobin
D
leghaemoglobin
Question 84
Sal and teak are found in  
A
tropical rain forest
B
tropical deciduous forest
C
temperate board left forest
D
temperate needle left forest
Question 85
In plasmolysed cell, the space between nucleus and plasma membrane is occupied by  
A
hypotonic solution
B
hypertonic solution
C
isotonic solution
D
air
Question 86
During oogenis, the small structure separated from egg is  
A
polar bodies
B
secondary endosperm
C
Herring bodies
D
Hela cells
Question 87
Structural and functional unit of kidney is  
A
neuron
B
nephron
C
lungs
D
Schwann’s cells
Question 88
Which hexaploid wheat is used to make bread?  
A
Triticum turgidum
B
Triticum durum
C
Triticum monococcum
D
Triticum aestivum
Question 89
When pollen grains are not transferred from anthers to stigma in a flower, due to the barrier, it is called  
A
herkogamy
B
heterogamy
C
cleistogamy
D
dichogamy
Question 90
Which of the following is not the main function of lymph glands?  
A
Forming WBC
B
Forming RBC
C
Forming antibodies
D
Destroying bacteria
Question 91
What is the name of cycle, which generates energy and splits water into hydrogen and oxygen?  
A
Glycolysis
B
Photophosphorylation
C
Citric acid cycle
D
Electron transport cycle
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