Nephrology Quiz Question Answers

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Nephrology Quiz Question Answers (Total 20 MCQs)

Nephrology Quiz (Medical) 20 Question Answers

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Question 1
Urine dipstick analysis can yield information about:
A
Microalbumin
B
Hemoglobin
C
Nitrates
D
Bence Jones Protein
Question 2
Which of the following drug can cause proteinuria?
A
Abetimus sodium
B
Rapamycin
C
FTY 720
D
Bortezomib
Question 3
Following drugs can be used for treatment of acute cellular rejection after renal transplantation, except:
A
Steroids
B
OKT3
C
Antithymocyte globulin
D
Alemtuzumab
Question 4
After renal transplantation, CMV disease can lead to:
A
Lymphopenia
B
Thrombocytopenia
C
Chronic liver disease
D
All of the above
Question 5
Following drugs have been found to be useful in induction treatment of Class IVlupus nephritis, except:
A
Cyclophosphamide
B
Azathioprine
C
Mycophenolate mofetil
D
Tacrolimus
Question 6
Which vascular access has highest risk of infection?
A
AV graft
B
AV fistula
C
Tunneled cuffed catheters
D
Temporary catheters
Question 7
Which of the following parameters best identifies with Stage 1 of acute kidney injury network criteria?
A
Increase in serum creatinine> 0.3 mg/dl
B
Increase in serum creatinine> 0.5 mg/dl
C
Decrease in urine output for less than 6 hours
D
Decrease in urine output for more than 12 hours
Question 8
Which of the following factors does not contribute to metabolic bone disease in chronic kidney disease patient?
A
Hyperparathyroidism
B
Metabolic alkalosis
C
Dietary intake of phosphorus
D
Low vitamin D levels
Question 9
All of the following are kidney biomarkers, except: KIM-1
A
Cystatin C
B
Hepcidin
C
Transforming growth factor
D
KIM-1
Question 10
Which of the following is not a feature of dyslipidemia in CKD?
A
High LDL
B
High Triglycerides
C
High Lipoprotein a
D
High HDL
Question 11
All of the following methods are used for quantitative estimation of proteinuria, except:
A
Electrophoresis
B
Sulfosalicylic method
C
Benzethonium chloride method
D
Dye binding method
Question 12
Tuberculosis can cause following manifestations in kidneys, except:
A
Amyloidosis
B
Interstitial nephritis
C
Mesangio-capillary glomerulonephritis
D
Auto-nephrectomy
Question 13
Which of the following is an indication for intervention in renal artery stenosis?
A
Flash pulmonary edema
B
Renal size < 8 cm
C
Resistive index > 0.8
D
Serum creatinine> 4.0 mg/dl
Question 14
Presence of following may indicate non-diabetic kidney disease in a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus:
A
Proteinuria
B
Microscopic hematuria
C
Normal renal size
D
Retinopathy
Question 15
Which of the following disease have least risk of recurrence after renal transplant?
A
Dense deposit disease
B
Atypical HUS
C
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
D
ANCA associated vasculitis
Question 16
All of the following agents interfere with the tubular secretion of creatinine, except:
A
Trimethoprim
B
Cimetidine
C
Telmisartan
D
Fibrates
Question 17
All of the following drugs have been found to be effective against BK virus nephropathy, except:
A
Efavirenz
B
Cidofovir
C
Leflunomide
D
Amantadine
Question 18
A 26 year old female presented in 16 week of gestation with pedal edema. On evaluation, her blood pressure was 140/90 mmHg and normal renal function. Herurine examination revealed 4+ albumin with active sediments. What will be the most probable diagnosis?
A
IgA nephropathy
B
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
C
Preeclampsia
D
Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis
Question 19
Which of the following drugs does not require dose modification in renal failure?
A
Vancomycin
B
Linazolide
C
Cyclophosphamide
D
Imipenem
Question 20
Which of the following drug acts on calcium-sensing receptor?
A
Sevelamer carbonate
B
Lanthanum carbonate
C
Cinacalcet
D
Paricalcitol
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Nephrology Quiz Question Answers (Total 80 MCQs)

Nephrology Quiz (Medical) 80 Question Answers

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Question 1
All of the following drugs have been found beneficial in decreasing proteinuria in diabetic nephropathy, except:
A
Sitagliptin
B
Aliskiren
C
Cilnidipine
D
ACE inhibitors
Question 2
Combination of cortical and medullary nephrocalcinosis is characteristic of:
A
Medullary sponge kidney
B
Hypercalciuria
C
Primary hyperoxaluria
D
Cystinuria
Question 3
Contrast nephropathy can be prevented by all of the following except:
A
Normal saline
B
N-acetyl cysteine
C
Sodium bicarbonate
D
Mannitol
Question 4
Which of the following drugs does not cause type 4 renal tubular acidosis
A
Amphotericin B
B
Tacrolimus
C
Triamterene
D
Heparin
Question 5
Which of the following is not a criteria for peritoneal dialysis adequacy?  
A
Weekly kt/V urea>1.7
B
Weakly creatinine clearance >50L/1.73m2
C
Albumin clearance <0.15mL/min
D
Serum bicarbonate <24 mmol/L
Question 6
14-year-old type 1 diabetic boy presented with several days of repeated vomiting and mental obtundation. At admission, plasma glucose was 460 mg/dl and urine ketones- "large". His blood gas analysis revealed pH: 7.18, PO2: 70 mm Hg, PCO2: 35 mm Hg, HCO3: 15 mEq/L, Anion gap: 35 mEq/L. Identify the acid base abnormality in this patient:
A
Metabolic acidosis
B
Metabolic acidosis + respiratory acidosis
C
Metabolic acidosis + metabolic alkalosis + respiratory acidosis
D
Metabolic acidosis + respiratory alkalosis
Question 7
Which of the following statements are true for erythropoietin?
A
It can worsen hypertension
B
Causes proteinuria
C
It is an animal protein
D
Decreases the incidence of stroke
Question 8
Icodextrin will be most suitable in which category of patients?
A
High transporters
B
Low transporters
C
High average transporters
D
Low average transporters
Question 9
Diagnosis of acute uric acid nephropathy is best established by:
A
Serum urate > 20mg/dl
B
Urinary urate > 800 mg/dl
C
Urinary urate / creatinine ratio > 1
D
Urate crystals in urine
Question 10
Biochemical evidence of acute tumor lysis syndrome is not characterized by:
A
Hyperkalemia
B
Hyperphosphatemia
C
Hypercalcemia
D
Hyperuricemia
Question 11
Fanconi syndrome comprises of all, except:
A
Hypokalemia
B
Hypophosphatemia
C
Metabolic alkalosis
D
Proteinuria
Question 12
Drugs causing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus are:
A
Cilnidipine
B
Amphotericin B
C
Entecavir
D
Chlorpromazine
Question 13
Rifampicin therapy has been associated with
A
Minimal change disease
B
RPGN
C
All of the above
D
None of the above
Question 14
Following protein is not a part of glomerular filtration barrier:
A
Podocin
B
Nephrin
C
NEPH 1
D
Polycystin
Question 15
Defective complement pathway is present in all of the following, except:
A
Mesangio-capillary glomerulonephritis
B
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
C
C3 nephropathy
D
Bardet-Biedl syndrome
Question 16
Clearance of a substance by extracorporeal therapy is limited by all except:
A
Large molecular weight
B
Binding to plasma proteins
C
Large volume of distribution
D
Ionized state
Question 17
Following are used as endogenous filtration marker for calculation of glomerular filtration rate:
A
Hippurate
B
Insulin
C
Cystatin C
D
Uric acid
Question 18
Which of the following conditions is not associated with low serum sodium?
A
Tolvaptan therapy
B
Hypothyroidism
C
Congestive heart failure
D
Alcohol intake 
Question 19
Toxin that can causes acute renal failure, hepatitis and pulmonary fibrosis
A
Paraquat
B
Ethylene dibromide
C
Copper sulphate
D
Arsenic
Question 20
Hypokalemia with hypertension can occur in
A
Liddle syndrome
B
Gitelman syndrome
C
Barter syndrome
D
Renal tubular acidosis
Question 21
In a case of recurrent renal stone disease, following measures have been found to be effective:
A
Periodic monitoring by CT scan
B
Increase salt intake
C
Increase calcium intake
D
Increase potassium intake
Question 22
In children, all of the following drugs are effective in steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome, except:
A
Cyclosporine
B
Azathioprine
C
Tacrolimus
D
Rituximab
Question 23
All are direct acting vasodilators except:
A
Minoxidil
B
Sodium nitroprusside
C
Hydrallazine
D
Trimethaphan
Question 24
Which of the following vascular changes is seen least frequently in patients with lupus nephritis
A
Vasculopathy
B
Vasculitis
C
Thrombotic microangiopathy
D
Arteriosclerosis
Question 25
Hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism is not associated with:
A
Diabetes mellitus
B
Sickle cell disease
C
Obstructive uropathy
D
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
Question 26
Linear deposition on immunofluorescence in renal biopsy is seen in:
A
Wegener's granulomatosis
B
Light chain deposition disease
C
Systemic lupus erythematosus
D
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Question 27
14 yr old boy presents with recurrent gross hematuria from the age of five. USG and IVP do not reveal any abnormality and urine examination under phase contrast microscopy shows plenty of dysmorphic RBCs. His 24 hr urinary protein excretion in the absence of hematuria is 800 mg/day. What is the next appropriate investigation?
A
Reassurance alone
B
Pure tone audiometry
C
Serum IgA levels
D
Kidney biopsy
Question 28
All of the following proteins are associated with amyloidosis, except
A
Fibronectin
B
Lysozyme
C
Transthyretin
D
Cystatin C
Question 29
All of the following drugs are useful in treatment of post transplant lymphoproliferative disorders, except:
A
Cyclophosphamide
B
Sirolimus
C
Rituximab
D
Cisplatin
Question 30
Disorders which can cause hypovolemic hyponatremia are
A
Syndrome of inappropriate AVP secretion (SIADH)
B
Congestive heart failure
C
Hypothyroidism
D
Salt wasting nephropathy
Question 31
All of the following renal disease can present with accelerated hypertension, except:
A
Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis
B
Vesico-ureteric reflux
C
Thin basement membrane disease
D
IgA nephropathy
Question 32
Hypokalemia can cause
A
Central diabetes insipidus
B
Rhabdomyolysis
C
Seizures
D
ST elevation on ECG
Question 33
Which of the following statement regarding ADPKD is correct?
A
Presentation of disease is variable within a family
B
Mutation analysis is currently the method of choice to screen asymptomatic relatives
C
ADPKD II is characterized by earlier onset and faster progression than ADPKD I
D
Patients with ADPKD are at an increased risk of developing renal cell carcinoma
Question 34
Which of the following statements is true for chronic kidney disease-metabolic bone disease (CKD-MBD)?
A
Is more common in peritoneal dialysis patients as compared to haemodialysis
B
Usually starts late in the course of kidney disease
C
Causes EPO-resistant anemia
D
More common in males than females
Question 35
Following manifestation necessitates treatment of hepatitis C after renal transplant:
A
Chronic active hepatitis
B
Fibrosing cholestatic hepatitis
C
Cirrhosis
D
Chronic persistent hepatitis
Question 36
Which of the following is not a feature of rejection in the graft biopsy?
A
Acute tubular necrosis
B
Glomerulitis
C
Transplant glomerulopathy
D
Mesangial hypercellularity
Question 37
Transcellular shift of potassium inside the cells is effected by:  
A
Metabolic acidosis
B
2 adrenergics
C
Diuretics
D
Aldosterone
Question 38
All of the following drugs have been used for induction treatment, except
A
Basiliximab
B
Alemtuzumab
C
Antithymocyte globulin
D
Rituximab
Question 39
Following is the feature of multiple myeloma:
A
Raised alkaline phosphatase
B
Hypocalcemia
C
More than 5% plasma cells in bone marrow
D
Interstitial nephritis
Question 40
All of the following are useful in diagnosing vesico-ureteric reflux, except:
A
Ultrasonography
B
DTPA scintigraphy
C
Magnetic resonance imaging
D
Cystourethrography
Question 41
Crystalluria is a common side effect of which of the following antiviral agent:
A
Ritonavir
B
Indinavir
C
Nelfinavir
D
Adefovir
Question 42
Which of the following physiological changes does not occur in kidneys with ageing?
A
Decline in GFR
B
Decline in Renal plasma flow
C
Decline in filtration fraction
D
Decline in nephron number
Question 43
Which of the given measures is ineffective in preventing intradialytic hypotension?
A
High dialysate temperature
B
Midodrine
C
High dialysate calcium
D
Decrease rate of ultrafiltration
Question 44
Basic defect in Alport's syndrome lies at:    
A
Podosin
B
Phospholipase A2
C
Type 4 collagen
D
Type 3 collagen
Question 45
All the following vitamins need to be supplemented in patients with end stage renal disease except:
A
Vitamin D
B
Vitamin A
C
Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
D
Vitamin E
Question 46
All of the following drugs retard the progression of CKD, except:
A
Verapamil
B
Enalapril
C
Spironolactone
D
Sodium bicarbonate
Question 47
Plasma exchange is beneficial in all of the following, except:
A
Cast nephropathy
B
ANCA associated vasculitis
C
Severe acute cellular rejection
D
Cryoglobulinemia
Question 48
Mutations in PHEX gene causes:
A
X-linked hyperphosphatemic rickets
B
X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets
C
Autosomal recessive hyperphosphatemic rickets
D
Low circulating FGF-23
Question 49
"Envelope" shaped crystals in urine examination indicates:
A
Calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals
B
Calcium oxalate dihydrate crystals
C
Calcium phosphate crystals
D
Cystein crystals
Question 50
On electron microscopic examination of kidney biopsy "Myeloid bodies" are seen in:
A
Alport's syndrome
B
Nail patella syndrome
C
Fabry's disease
D
LCAT deficiency
Question 51
Condition that can cause type B lactic acidosis
A
Carbon monoxide poisoning
B
Methanol poisoning
C
Septic shock
D
Short bowel syndrome
Question 52
Following radionuclide agents can be used for calculation of glomerular filtration rate:
A
Tc DMSA
B
Tc MAG3
C
Tc OIH
D
Tc GH
Question 53
Which of the following is not a feature of distal renal tubular acidosis?
A
Raised plasma chloride
B
Raised urinary pco2
C
Fractional excretion of HCo3 < 5 %
D
Normal anion gap
Question 54
Following statements is true about Alport's syndrome
A
Cure is possible with gene therapy
B
Hematuria is the most common renal manifestation
C
Recurrence is common after renal transplantation
D
Posterior lenticonus is the most common ocular defect
Question 55
Methanol poisoning causes all, except:
A
Ataxia
B
Renal failure
C
Metabolic alkalosis
D
Visual symptoms
Question 56
All are true regarding Juvenile nephronophthisis, except:
A
Autosomal recessive inheritance
B
Polyuria and polydipsia are early features
C
Hypertension occurs late
D
Kidneys appear enlarged and hyperechoeic on ultrasound evaluation
Question 57
Glomerular pathology most commonly seen in sickle cell nephropathy:
A
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
B
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
C
Mesangial proliferative GN
D
Collapse of glomerular tuft
Question 58
Which of the following is not true regarding dense deposit disease?
A
Presence of circulating autoantibodies to C3 convertase
B
Nephrotic syndrome is the commonest presentation
C
Associated with partial lipodystrophy
D
Disease usually does not recur after transplant
Question 59
Gitelman's syndrome is characterized by all except
A
Hypercalcemia
B
Hypokalemia
C
Hypomagnesemia
D
Metabolic alkalosis
Question 60
Presence of Hollenhorst bodies indicate:
A
Type 2 MPGN
B
Alports syndrome
C
Atheroembolism
D
EGPA
Question 61
Which of the following toxins is not removed by hemodialysis?
A
Barbiturates
B
Lithium
C
Methanol
D
Salicylates
Question 62
During pregnancy, kidneys undergo following physiological changes, except:
A
Increase in size
B
Increase in renal plasma flow
C
Increase in filtration fraction
D
No change in glomerular blood pressure
Question 63
Which of the following is protein bound uremic toxin:
A
Adrenomedullin
B
Homocysteine
C
Neuropeptide Y
D
ADMA
Question 64
Which of the following drugs increases the risk of new onset diabetes after transplant?
A
Alemtuzumab
B
Cyclosporine
C
Daclizumab
D
Azathioprine
Question 65
Immediately after acute ureteric obstruction all the following hemodynamic changes occur in that kidney, except:
A
Decrease in GFR
B
Decrease in renal blood flow
C
Decrease in medullary blood flow
D
Increase in intra-tubular pressure
Question 66
All of the following factors play an important role in renal autoregulation, except:      
A
Pro-renin
B
Angiotensin
C
Prostaglandin
D
Endothelin
Question 67
Following statement is true about vascular access
A
Temporary catheters are preferred over tunnelled catheters
B
Should be made at stage 5 CKD
C
AV graft is the most ideal vascular access
D
Should give flow of at least 300 ml/min
Question 68
All of the following diseases can cause monogenic hypercalciuria in humans except
A
Dent's disease
B
Gitelman syndrome
C
Bartter syndrome
D
Liddle syndrome
Question 69
Which part of the nephron is not involved in renal sodium handling?
A
Proximal convoluted tubule
B
Proximal straight tubule
C
Thick descending limb
D
Thick ascending limb
Question 70
6-month-old infant presented with profuse watery diarrhoea and mental obtundation. At admission she had severe dehydration with a weak pulse and her laboratory values were as follows: Na+ 160 mEq/L, K= 3.4 mEq/L, blood urea 60 mg/dl, serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dl, HCO3- 22 mEq/L. Which of the following is the appropriate initial fluid therapy?
A
1/2 normal saline
B
5 % dextrose
C
Ringer lactate
D
Normal saline followed by 5 % dextrose
Question 71
Which of the following indices does not differentiate pre renal azotemia from intrinsic acute renal failure
A
Fractional excretion of sodium
B
Fractional excretion of urea
C
Fractional excretion of uric acid
D
Fractional excretion of phosphate
Question 72
Renal biopsy in a case of lupus nephritis can show all of the following, except
A
Hyaline thrombi
B
Fibrous crescents
C
Capsular drop
D
Karyorrehxis
Question 73
A patient with bilateral renal vein thrombosis can present with all, except:
A
Azotemia
B
Polyuria
C
Nephrotic range proteinuria
D
Flank pain
Question 74
Which of the following drugs is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy?
A
Mycophenolate mofetil
B
Azathioprine
C
Corticosteroids
D
Tacrolimus
Question 75
Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for pre-eclampsia?
A
Nullipara
B
Family history of pre-eclampsia
C
Maternal diabetes
D
Smoking
Question 76
Following drugs have potential to cause nephrotoxicity:
A
Methotrexate
B
Tramadol
C
Alpha ketoanalogue
D
Phenobarbitone
Question 77
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Congenital nephrotic syndrome (Finnish type)
A
Mutation of NPHS 1 gene encoding for nephrin
B
Autosomal recessive inheritance
C
First appearance of proteinuria at 3 rd month of age
D
Diffuse effacement of foot process on electron microscopic examination of kidney biopsy
Question 78
All of the following can be seen in uremic male subject, except:
A
Erectile dysfunction
B
Hyperprolactinemia
C
Low testosterone levels
D
Low plasma LH levels
Question 79
Following is true about hypernatremia
A
More common disorder than hyponatremia
B
Invariably is associated with hypertonicity
C
Vaptans are effective in management
D
Should not be corrected below 150mEq/L
Question 80
Which of the following is true about ANCA associated vasculitis?
A
Usually common in young adults
B
Rituximab is an effective drug
C
Once serum creatinine is more than 5.5 mg/dl, treatment is not effective
D
Has high recurrence after renal transplantation
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