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Neurology Quiz Question Answers

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Neurology Quiz Question Answers (Total 20 MCQs)

Nephrology Quiz (Medical) 20 Question Answers

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Question 1
Urine dipstick analysis can yield information about:
A
Microalbumin
B
Hemoglobin
C
Nitrates
D
Bence Jones Protein
Question 2
Which of the following drug can cause proteinuria?
A
Abetimus sodium
B
Rapamycin
C
FTY 720
D
Bortezomib
Question 3
Following drugs can be used for treatment of acute cellular rejection after renal transplantation, except:
A
Steroids
B
OKT3
C
Antithymocyte globulin
D
Alemtuzumab
Question 4
After renal transplantation, CMV disease can lead to:
A
Lymphopenia
B
Thrombocytopenia
C
Chronic liver disease
D
All of the above
Question 5
Following drugs have been found to be useful in induction treatment of Class IVlupus nephritis, except:
A
Cyclophosphamide
B
Azathioprine
C
Mycophenolate mofetil
D
Tacrolimus
Question 6
Which vascular access has highest risk of infection?
A
AV graft
B
AV fistula
C
Tunneled cuffed catheters
D
Temporary catheters
Question 7
Which of the following parameters best identifies with Stage 1 of acute kidney injury network criteria?
A
Increase in serum creatinine> 0.3 mg/dl
B
Increase in serum creatinine> 0.5 mg/dl
C
Decrease in urine output for less than 6 hours
D
Decrease in urine output for more than 12 hours
Question 8
Which of the following factors does not contribute to metabolic bone disease in chronic kidney disease patient?
A
Hyperparathyroidism
B
Metabolic alkalosis
C
Dietary intake of phosphorus
D
Low vitamin D levels
Question 9
All of the following are kidney biomarkers, except:KIM-1
A
Cystatin C
B
Hepcidin
C
Transforming growth factor
D
KIM-1
Question 10
Which of the following is not a feature of dyslipidemia in CKD?
A
High LDL
B
High Triglycerides
C
High Lipoprotein a
D
High HDL
Question 11
All of the following methods are used for quantitative estimation of proteinuria, except:
A
Electrophoresis
B
Sulfosalicylic method
C
Benzethonium chloride method
D
Dye binding method
Question 12
Tuberculosis can cause following manifestations in kidneys, except:
A
Amyloidosis
B
Interstitial nephritis
C
Mesangio-capillary glomerulonephritis
D
Auto-nephrectomy
Question 13
Which of the following is an indication for intervention in renal artery stenosis?
A
Flash pulmonary edema
B
Renal size < 8 cm
C
Resistive index > 0.8
D
Serum creatinine> 4.0 mg/dl
Question 14
Presence of following may indicate non-diabetic kidney disease in a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus:
A
Proteinuria
B
Microscopic hematuria
C
Normal renal size
D
Retinopathy
Question 15
Which of the following disease have least risk of recurrence after renal transplant?
A
Dense deposit disease
B
Atypical HUS
C
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
D
ANCA associated vasculitis
Question 16
All of the following agents interfere with the tubular secretion of creatinine, except:
A
Trimethoprim
B
Cimetidine
C
Telmisartan
D
Fibrates
Question 17
All of the following drugs have been found to be effective against BK virus nephropathy, except:
A
Efavirenz
B
Cidofovir
C
Leflunomide
D
Amantadine
Question 18
A 26 year old female presented in 16 week of gestation with pedal edema. On evaluation, her blood pressure was 140/90 mmHg and normal renal function. Herurine examination revealed 4+ albumin with active sediments. What will be the most probable diagnosis?
A
IgA nephropathy
B
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
C
Preeclampsia
D
Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis
Question 19
Which of the following drugs does not require dose modification in renal failure?
A
Vancomycin
B
Linazolide
C
Cyclophosphamide
D
Imipenem
Question 20
Which of the following drug acts on calcium-sensing receptor?
A
Sevelamer carbonate
B
Lanthanum carbonate
C
Cinacalcet
D
Paricalcitol
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Neurology Quiz Question Answers (Total 80 MCQs)

Neurology Quiz (Medical) 80 Question Answers

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Question 1
Eye of the tiger sign is seen on MRI in :
A
CADASIL
B
Hallervorden spatz syndrome
C
Pick's disease
D
Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
Question 2
5 year risk of developing clinically definite MS in patients with one episode of optic neuritis with no brain MRI lesions :
A
5%
B
10%
C
15%
D
20%
Question 3
Which of the following does not carry parasympathetic fibres ?
A
Oculomotor
B
IX nerve
C
X nerve
D
Optic nerve
Question 4
Pure alexia without agraphia occurs with occlusion of :
A
Left posterior cerebral artery
B
Right posterior cerebral artery
C
Left middle cerebral artery
D
Right anterior choroidal artery
Question 5
Presence of INO indicates :
A
Pontine or mesencephalic injury
B
Thalamic hemorrhage
C
Medullary infraction
D
Injury in the frontal eye fields
Question 6
A 45-year old man was diagnosed with MERRF. Which of the following relatives is at risk for developing the disease :
A
His brother's son
B
His daughter
C
His daughter's son
D
His sister's daughter
Question 7
True regarding Ehlar Danlos Syndrome (EDS)
A
Type IV is the most common subtype
B
Type III is most commonly associated with neurovascular complications
C
Most common site for occurrence of aneurysm is Basilar artery
D
Vascular fragility of type IV EDS makes standard angiography difficult
Question 8
Which of the following is not a Tauopathy
A
Postencephalitic parkinsonism
B
Progressive supranuclear palsy
C
Diffuse Lewy Body disease
D
Alzheimer's disease
Question 9
Pure sensory stroke is most likely with damage to the :
A
Internal capsule
B
Thalamus
C
Hippocampus
D
Globus pallidus
Question 10
Which is the commonest complication of measles?
A
LGB
B
Optic neuritis
C
Aseptic meningitis
D
Post / Para infectious demyelination
Question 11
CNS vasculitis occurs in all EXCEPT :
A
SLE
B
Polyarteritis
C
Granulomatous angitis
D
Whipple's disease
Question 12
The most common CNS neoplasm in HIV infected patients is :
A
Glioblastoma
B
Meningioma
C
Lymphoma
D
Meningeal sarcoma
Question 13
'Person in a barrel phenomenon' is due to :
A
MCA stroke
B
MCA-ACA watershed stroke.
C
ACA stroke
D
PCA stroke.
Question 14
Which of the following newer antipsychotic drug is least likely to worsen Parkinsonism?
A
Clozapine
B
Quetiapine
C
Risperidone
D
Olanzapine
Question 15
Which of the following condition is commonly associated with Trigeminal neuropathy :
A
SLE
B
Sarcoidosis
C
Sjogrens syndrome
D
Systemic sclerosis
Question 16
All the following are examples of small fiber neuropathies except :
A
Tangier's disease
B
Fabry's disease
C
Amyloidosis
D
Vit B12 deficiency
Question 17
Lateral medullary syndrome does NOT cause :
A
Spinothalamic involvement
B
Cerebellar signs
C
Horner's syndrome
D
Corticospinal involvement
Question 18
Central pontine myelinolysis (CPM) can occurs in :
A
Hypernatraemia
B
Hypocalcaemia
C
Addison's disease
D
Anoxic brain damage
Question 19
tPA was approved by FDA after results of _____ trial :
A
NASCET
B
NINDS
C
ATLANTIS
D
SAPPHIRE
Question 20
Drug of choice in juvenile myoclonus epilepsy is :
A
Phenytoin
B
Carbamazepine
C
Phenobarbitone
D
Valproic acid
Question 21
Which of the following statements regarding 'epileptic auras' is incorrect?
A
They are simple partial seizures lasting for seconds to minutes
B
They may occur in isolation or as a precursor to longer seizures
C
May be unilateral or focal somatosensory as well as visual or auditory phenomenon
D
They are equivalent to premonition or prodromes
Question 22
Which is the most common location of glioblastoma multiforme ?
A
Parietal lobe
B
Frontal lobe
C
Cerebellum
D
Temporal lobe
Question 23
Dopa responsive dystonia- true except
A
Childhood onset dystonia which is worse in the morning and improves as day progresses
B
Usually present with peculiar gait with a tendency to walk on the toes
C
Many have features of extra-pyramidal symptoms
D
Responds well to levodopa
Question 24
Which of the following statements is not true regarding cavernous sinus syndrome ?
A
Third nerve palsy is usually a part of anterior cavernous sinus syndrome
B
Horners syndrome may be present
C
Mandibular division of fifth nerve is usually involved
D
Tolosa hunt syndrome is idiopathic self limited inflammation of cavernous sinus
Question 25
Peripheral neuropathy in patients with Friedreich's disease is mainly contributed by degeneration of :
A
Dorsal root ganglia
B
Spinocerebellar tracts
C
Anterior horn cells
D
Posterior column
Question 26
Which of the following disease causing 'progressive myoclonic epilepsy' is associated with photoconvulsive response in EEG :
A
Sialodosis
B
MERRF
C
Neuronal Ceriod Lipofuscinosis
D
Unvericht Lundberg disease
Question 27
Muscle biopsy should be done from :
A
A muscle recently studied by needle EMG
B
A muscle with medical research council (MRC) grade 2 strength
C
A muscle with medical research council (MRC) grade 5 strength
D
A muscle with medical research council (MRC) grade 4 strength
Question 28
Which of the following is TRUE about CNS tuberculosis ?
A
MR spectroscopy shows myoinositol peak
B
MR spectroscopy shows lipid peak
C
Multiple cranial nerve palsies are uncommon
D
TBPCR is the gold standard
Question 29
What percentage of people having ALS have onset in bulbar muscles?
A
25%
B
35%
C
45%
D
50%
Question 30
A 40 year old women with 6 months history of sinusitits, epistaxis, skin rash and weight loss subacutely developed painful mononeurotis multiplex. What is the likely diagnosis :
A
Churg strauss disease
B
Polyantentis nodos
C
Wegners granulomatosis
D
Microscopic polyangitis
Question 31
Localised 'Knife-Edge' atrophy of frontal and temporal lobes seen in :
A
Picks disease
B
Alzheimer's disease
C
Cortico Basal ganglionic degeneration
D
PSP
Question 32
Regarding Myotonia congenita, correct statement is
A
Thomsen's variant has autosomal dominant inheritance
B
Becker's disease shows less severe involvement
C
Atrophy of muscles is prominent in Thomsen's disease
D
Symptoms of myotonia congenita worsen with activity
Question 33
The likely cause of urinary urgency, with frequency and nocturia in a patient of advanced parkinson's disease is:
A
Detrussor hyperreflexia
B
Atonic bladder
C
Prostatic obstruction
D
Stress urinary incontinence
Question 34
In cerebral malaria :
A
Focal neurological signs are common
B
Manifest as diffuse symmetric encephalopathy
C
Signs of meningeal irritation are prominent
D
Convulsions are usually focal and more common adults
Question 35
Which of the following is marker of neuronal intergrity on Magnetic Resource Spectroscopy ?
A
N acetyl aspartate
B
Choline
C
Lactate
D
Creatinine
Question 36
In Deep Brain Stimulation, VIM nucleus of thalamus stimulation is used for all except
A
Dystonia
B
Tremors
C
Dyskinesia
D
Myoclonus
Question 37
Starry sky appearance on brain CT is seen in :    
A
Tuberculoma
B
Cysticercosis
C
Cryptococosis
D
Toxoplasmosis
Question 38
Of the various peripheral nerve syndromes that complicate HIV infection, the mostcommon is
A
AIDP
B
CIDP
C
Distal Symmetrical peripheral neuropathy
D
Nucleoside analog associated toxic neuropathy
Question 39
Lesion of the Right side Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus causes paralysis of whicheye movement :
A
Right abduction
B
Right adduction
C
Left abduction
D
Left adduction
Question 40
The most reliable treatment for the peripheral neuropathy in chronic renal failure is :
A
Thiamine supplements
B
Phenytoin
C
Renal transplant
D
Clonazepam
Question 41
Narcolepsy is associated with :
A
Sudden onset REM sleep
B
Sudden awakening from REM sleep
C
Vivid Violent nightmares
D
Epilepsy
Question 42
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension has following feature except :
A
Signs of raised ICT
B
Papillodema
C
Transient visual obscurations
D
Dilated ventricles
Question 43
Which of the following statements regarding Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy is incorrect?
A
Alternatively called as Impulsive Petit Mal seizures
B
Usual age of onset is 12 - 18 years
C
Generalised tonic - clonic seizures develop in 90% of patients
D
Inter ictal EEG shows bilaterally symmetrical spike and polyspike wave discharges of 3-5 Hz usually maximal in temporal region.
Question 44
Commonest site of orgin of acoustic neuorma :
A
Cochlear nerve
B
Superior vestibular nerve
C
Inferior vestibular nerve
D
Nervus intermedius
Question 45
Most commonly involved nerve in Sarcoidosis is :
A
Optic nerve
B
Facial nerve
C
Auditory nerve
D
Oculomotor nerve
Question 46
The tentorium cerebelli is a common site of origin for :  
A
Meningiomas
B
Ependymomas
C
Hemangiobalstomas
D
Medulloblastomas
Question 47
Not true about CNS tuberculosis :
A
Multibacillary TB
B
Tuberculomas can develop while on treatment
C
Spinal TB mostly involves lower dorsal spine
D
Basal exudates are typical
Question 48
Periodic complexes in EEG of patients of SSPE is characterized by all except :
A
High amplitude
B
Frequency 2-4 Hz
C
Usually appear in the 2 nd stage of disease
D
Disappear as the disease advances
Question 49
Which of the following conditions is most likely to produce ptosis and facial weakness without ophthalmoplegia ?
A
Acid maltase deficiency
B
Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
C
Kearns-Sayre syndrome
D
Myotonic dystrophy, type 1
Question 50
Fencer's posture is found with partial seizures arising from which part of the brain :
A
Superior temporal gyrus
B
Supplementary motor area of frontal lobe
C
Orbitofrontal gyrus
D
Amygdala
Question 51
Commonest cause of emotional facial palsy is :
A
Anterolateral thalamic infarction
B
Lateral pontine infarction
C
Temporal lobe infarction
D
Striato capsular infarction.
Question 52
Which of the following is characteristic of Diffuse Lewy body disease except :
A
Fluctuating Cognition
B
Visual hallucination
C
Parkinsonism
D
Dressing Apraxia
Question 53
Autosomal dominant familial Parkinson's disease include all of the following genes except :
A
α- synnuclein
B
Parkin
C
UCHL1
D
None of the above
Question 54
Bilateral facial nerve palsy is not seen in :  
A
Plague
B
Leptospirosis
C
Tetanus
D
Tuberculosis
Question 55
An Alcoholic with dementia, myoclonus, release reflexes and rigidity has : 
A
Thiamine deficiency
B
B 12 deficiency
C
Folic acid deficiency
D
Niacin deficiency (Pellagra)
Question 56
The most common extratemporal site of seizure onset in complex partial seizures is :
A
Frontal lobe
B
Occipital lobe
C
Parietal lobe
D
Angular gyrus
Question 57
All are true for surgical treatment of Parkinson's Disease except?
A
DBS is preferred over ablative procedures
B
All drugs can be stopped after surgery
C
Unilateral stimulation is appropriate for patients with asymmetric disease
D
Axial symptoms don't respond adequately after DBS
Question 58
Which of the following is gold standard for assessment of intracranial atherosclerosis?
A
CT angiography
B
MR angiography
C
DSA
D
Transcranial Doppler
Question 59
Mixed cryoglobulinemia is most commonly associated with which viral infection :
A
Hepatitis B
B
EBV
C
Hepatitis C
D
HIV
Question 60
All the following drugs are metabolized in the liver except :
A
Lamotrigine
B
Valproate
C
Levetiracetam
D
Carbamazepine
Question 61
Following raised intracranial tension, the first suture to show widening is :
A
Sagittal
B
Coronal
C
Lambdoid
D
Squamosa
Question 62
Anticipation is seen in :
A
Juvenile parkinsonism
B
Rheumatic chorea
C
Huntington's disease
D
Choreoathetosis
Question 63
The site at which the smallest lesion produces complete loss of consciousness with minimal effects on other functions is the:
A
Medullary tegmentum
B
Caudal pontine tegmentum
C
Rostral pontine tegmentum
D
Dorsolateral diencephalon
Question 64
All are true about dopamine agonist in PD except :
A
Readily cross BBB
B
Dopamine agonist monotherapy is considered for initial treatment of most patients with PD
C
Should not be given in young patients
D
Act on post-synaptic D2 receptors
Question 65
Which of the following is not a pain-sensitive structure causing headache ?
A
Optic nerve
B
Oculomotor nerve
C
Facial nerve
D
First three cervical nerves
Question 66
Spina bifida occulta :   
A
Is commonly associated with spinal cord disease
B
Can manifest in old age
C
Causes bladder problems
D
May be accidentally detected radiologically
Question 67
Which of the following types of Neurogenic Bladder is painful?
A
Autonomic Bladder
B
Automatic Bladder
C
Motor Paralytic Bladder
D
Sensory Paralytic Bladder
Question 68
Which is NOT a feature of Parkinson's Disease ?
A
Tremor
B
Rigidity
C
Hyperreflexia
D
Postural imbalance
Question 69
Recommended dose of t PA :
A
0.5 mg/kg
B
0.7 mg/kg
C
0.9 mg/Kg
D
0.6mg/kg
Question 70
What does "category X" means while prescribing an antiepileptic drug to pregnant women?
A
known danger - do not use
B
Positive evidence of human fetal risk, but benefit from use in pregnant women may be acceptable despite risk
C
Safest
D
Either studies in animals has revealed adverse effects on foetus & there are no controlled human studies
Question 71
Hung up knee jerk is a characteristic sign elicited in :
A
Athetosis
B
Chorea
C
Ataxia
D
Dystonia
Question 72
Myopathies associated with muscle stiffness include all except :
A
Myotonic dystrophy
B
Myotonia congenita
C
Hypothyroid myopathy
D
Polymyositis
Question 73
Afferent for the blink reflex is mediated by :
A
Infraorbital nerve
B
Supraorbital nerve
C
Maxillary division of Vth nerve
D
Facial nerve
Question 74
Acquired epileptic aphasia is otherwise known as :
A
Panayiotopoulos syndrome
B
Lennox Gastaut syndrome
C
West syndrome
D
Landau- Kleffner syndrome
Question 75
Seizures are seen in which of the following Spinocerebellar Ataxia?
A
SCA - 6
B
SCA - 10
C
SCA - 2
D
SCA - 7
Question 76
Sole clinical feature distinguishing carotid syndrome from MCA syndrome is :
A
Neglect
B
Amaurosis fugax.
C
Hemiparesis
D
Hemianesthesia
Question 77
What is NOT true in Herpes Encephalitis?
A
Temporal lobe involvement is common
B
Most commonly caused by HSV 1
C
Treatment is with Acyclovir
D
Cranial nerve palsies are common
Question 78
Most common cause of visual loss in children is :
A
Amblyopia
B
Cataract
C
Trachoma
D
Leucodystrophy
Question 79
All are true about Oppenheim's dystonia except?
A
AD inheritance
B
Mutation in gene for cyclohydrolase 1
C
First sign of dystonia occurs in the foot
D
Early onset form usually becomes generalized
Question 80
Median nerve innervates :
A
Abductor Pollicis Brevis
B
Extensor Pollicis Brevis
C
Extensor Pollicis Longus
D
Interossei
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