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Neurosurgery Quiz Question Answers

Neurosurgery Quiz Question Answers (Question Bank) Free Online Test For Medical Students like (PHD, M.Ch., D.M), Nurse related exam entrance.

We have put total 100 Objective Type Question Answers (Question Bank) on Neurosurgery, you can practice these question answers for free. Well these MCQs test question comes from different areas on Neurosurgery.

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Neurosurgery Quiz Question Answers (Total 20 MCQs)

Neurosurgery Quiz (Medical) 20 Question Answers

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Question 1
fibers of the striamedullares in the floor of fourth ventricle are derived from
A
arcuate nucleus
B
inferior olivary nucleus
C
pontine reticular formatron
D
lateral vestibular nucleus
Question 2
Which of the following oculor muscles receives crossed fibres
A
medial rectus
B
superior rectus
C
inferior oblique
D
inferior rectus
Question 3
The supplemental motor area is mapped on the
A
medial surface of the superior frontal gyrus
B
Insular certex
C
premotor area
D
post central sensorimotor cortex
Question 4
Typical example of granular cerebral cortex is
A
motor cortex
B
premotor cortex
C
visual cortex
D
insular cortex
Question 5
Which of the following is not characteristically seen in Gerstmann's syndrome
A
right left disorientation
B
alexia
C
finger agnosia
D
acalculia
Question 6
Wernicke's hemianopic pupillary reaction denotes a lesion in the
A
optic tract
B
optic chiasm
C
pretectal nucleus
D
Von Wilbrand's knee
Question 7
Which of the following tracts contains fibers which have crossed in the spinal cord :
A
corticospinal tract
B
lateral spinothalamic tract
C
posterior columns
D
rubrospinal tracts
Question 8
The parasympathetic fibers supplying the urinary bladder originate from
A
T10 - L2 spinal segments
B
S1 - S5 spinal segments
C
S2 - S4 spinal segments
D
hypogastric plexus
Question 9
Which of the following vessels does not form the cerebral arterial circle of Wills :
A
anterior cerebral artery
B
posterior cerebral artery
C
posterior communicating artery
D
pericallosal artery
Question 10
Which of the following is a derivative of the neural crest :
A
sensory ganglia of cranial nerve V
B
ependymal lining of spinal cord
C
anterior horn cells
D
interneurons
Question 11
The axillary nerve is a branch of
A
lateral cord
B
posterior cord
C
medial cord
D
anterior division of the lower trunk
Question 12
Which of the following cisterns is in closest relation to the superior and inferior colliculi :
A
perimesencephalic
B
crural
C
prepontine
D
Quadrigeminal
Question 13
Endorgans in the internal ear are
A
osmo receptors
B
mechano receptors
C
neuroepithelial receptors
D
nocireceptors
Question 14
The corticospinal fibers occupy which part of the internal capsule :
A
anterior limb
B
posterior limb
C
genu
D
retrolenticular portion
Question 15
The first line antileptic drug for treatment of absence seizures is
A
Topiramate
B
Ethosuxionide
C
carbamezipine
D
felbamate
Question 16
Which of the following is not an absolute requirement for declaring a patient brain dead
A
bilateral dilated fixed pupils
B
complete apnoea
C
demonstration of cessation of blood flow to brain
D
No motor response
Question 17
Which of the following pituitary hormones is secreted by cells in the hypothalamic region :
A
Growth hormone
B
vasopressin
C
corticotrophin
D
prolactin
Question 18
Which of the following structures, is not a part of hypothalamus
A
mamillary bodies
B
paraventricular nucleus
C
arcuate nucleus
D
pulvinar
Question 19
Which of the following cranial nerves has no sensory component :
A
facial nerve
B
vagus nerve
C
accessory nerve
D
glossopharyngeal nerve
Question 20
The fibers of the optic radiation arise from :
A
lateral geniculate body
B
ganglionic layer of retina
C
medial geniculate body
D
pretectal nucleus
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Neurosurgery Quiz Question Answers (Total 80 MCQs)

Neurosurgery Quiz (Medical) 80 Question Answers

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Question 1
Surgery is usually not the primary treatment option in:
A
prolactinoma
B
microadenoma with acromegaly
C
nonfunctioning pituitary adenoma
D
invasive pituitary adenoma
Question 2
Management options in the treatment of intracranial hypertension secondary to trauma include all of the following except:
A
High dose cortical steroids.
B
Mild sedation
C
External ventricular drainage
D
Use of osmotic diuretics
Question 3
Acute onset of the "worst headache of my life" is typical of:
A
Intracerebral hemorrhage
B
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C
Cerebellar hemorrhage
D
Temporal arteritis
Question 4
Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by
A
Active secretion
B
Filteration
C
Both, Active secretion and Filteration
D
Physical osmosis
Question 5
A 7 year old child presented with visual loss, bilateral papilloedema and truncal ataxia. The most likely diagnosis is :
A
craniopharyngioma
B
medulloblastoma
C
cerebellar pilocytic astrocytoma
D
aqueductal stenosis causing hydrocephalus
Question 6
'Cushings triad' in relation to raised intracranial pressure includes
A
Headache, Vomittings and visual loss
B
Bradycardia, Bradypnea and Hypertension
C
Decerebration, hypotension and tacchycardia
D
Pupillary dialatation, hemiplegia, altered sensorium
Question 7
With the eyeball adducted (turned inward), the depression or downward movement of the eye ball is mediated through:
A
superior oblique muscle
B
inferior oblique muscle
C
inferior rectus muscle
D
medial rectus muscle
Question 8
The lobe most commonly contused in Head Injury is
A
Frontal
B
Parietal
C
Temporal
D
Occipital
Question 9
Inspite of the best treatment, the highest mortality is associated with
A
Extradural Hematoma
B
Acute Subdural Hematoma
C
Chronic Subdural Hematoma
D
Sub acute Subdural Hematoma
Question 10
The most common location for spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage secondary to hypertension is: 
A
Cerebellum
B
Cerebral white matter
C
Basal ganglia
D
Brainstem
Question 11
Primary survey and resuscitation of the patient with head trauma includes all of the following except:  
A
Assessment of airway patency.
B
Intracranial pressure monitoring.
C
Breathing control.
D
Circulatory and hemorrhage control.
Question 12
FOSTER-KENNEDY SYNDROME is most commonly due to
A
Collid cyst of 3rd Ventricle
B
Tumours of the 4th Ventricle
C
Sub-frontal tumours
D
ParasaggitalMeningiomas
Question 13
In lumbar disc prolapse between L5& S1 vertebral body, the root most commonly affected is :
A
S1
B
L5
C
L4
D
S2
Question 14
Which of the following is not a method to elicit the cutaneous plantar reflex:
A
Oppenheim's sign
B
Schaefer's sign
C
Gordon's sign
D
Lasegeu's sign
Question 15
The chemoreceptor trigger zone is situated at :
A
area postrema
B
locus coeruleus
C
hypothalamic nucleus
D
nucleus of cajal
Question 16
'CHORDOMAS' are tumours arising from remanents of
A
Ectopic Cord tissue
B
Notochord tissue
C
Rathke's pouch
D
Ectopic lymphatic tissue
Question 17
Which of the following is a hallmark of intra-axial brain stem lesions :
A
downward gaze palsy
B
internuclear opthalmoplegia
C
pathological laughter
D
multiple unilateral cranial nerve palsies
Question 18
Descending vestibular fibres in the medial longitudinal fasciculus projecting tospinal levels arise primarily from
A
medial vestibular nucleus
B
lateral vestibular nucleus
C
superior vestibular nucleus
D
inferior vestibular nucleus
Question 19
Arnoid-Chiari Malformation is related to development anomaly of
A
Fore brain
B
Mid brain
C
Both Fore brain and Mid brain
D
Hind Brain
Question 20
Reflex arc for the GAG-REFLEX is  
A
Afferent 5th Nerve - Efferent 9th Nerve
B
Afferent 9th Nerve - Efferent 10th Nerve
C
10th Nerve forms both afferent and efferent limbs
D
Definiate mechanism not known
Question 21
Which of the following is usually not a feature of frontal lobe involvement :
A
pathological joking
B
broca's aphasia
C
horizontal gaze palsy
D
complex partial seizures
Question 22
Extradural haematoma is due to bleeding from all sources except
A
Straight sinus
B
Transverse sinus
C
Dipolic Veins
D
Middile Meningeal artery
Question 23
Commonest false localizing sign of Intracranial space occupying Lesion is
A
Abducent nerve palsy
B
Occulomotor nerve palsy
C
Papilloedema
D
Acoustic nerve palsy
Question 24
Lamina Terminalis is in the
A
Floor of the 4th Ventricle
B
Anterior part of 3rd Ventricle
C
Just above the Pineal recess
D
Floor of the hypothalamus
Question 25
Which of the following is not a component of the blood brain barrier
A
endothelial cells of brain capillaries
B
basement membrane of the endothelial cells
C
foot processes of astrocytes
D
intercellular gap junction
Question 26
Which of the following tumours is the most likely to spread by CSF pathways :
A
Anaplastic astrocytoma
B
germinoma
C
third ventricular colloid cyst
D
subependymoma
Question 27
Retrobulbar optic neuritis is a serious adverse effect seen most often as an adverse effect of which of the following drugs :
A
Isoniazide
B
Ethambutol
C
Streptomycin
D
Dexamethasone
Question 28
A 20 year old girl presents with medically intractable seizures. She also gives history of febrile convulsions in childhood. The most likely cause for her condition could be :
A
Rassmusen'sencephalities
B
Congenital hydrocephalus
C
Medial temporal sclerosis
D
A sequelae of tubercular meningitis
Question 29
Cerebrospinal fluid is NOT absorped by
A
Choroid Plexus
B
Subarachnoid space
C
Arachnoid villi
D
Foramen of Luschka
Question 30
Drug induced subarachnoid hemorrhage is caused by :
A
cocaine
B
amlodipine
C
ciprofloxacin
D
amphotericin B
Question 31
Bacterial brain abscesses are usually treated by:
A
empiric antibiotics without biopsy.
B
stereotactic aspiration followed by 4-6 weeks of IV antibiotics.
C
radical surgical excision
D
a two week course of antibiotics
Question 32
The rate of administration of intravenous phenytoin should not be faster than
A
50 mg/minute
B
100 mg/minute
C
15 mg/minute
D
500 mg/minute
Question 33
Which cranial nerve emerges from the dorsal aspect of the brain?
A
Trochlear nerve
B
Abducent nerve
C
Facial nerve
D
Vertibulocochlear nerve
Question 34
Which of the following is not a component of the Gerstman's syndrome :
A
right left disorientation
B
finger agnosia
C
acalculia
D
dressing apraxia
Question 35
Which of the following statements are not true about meningiomas?
A
They are benign tumors that are believed to arise from the arachnoid cap cells
B
The cerebellopontine angle is the most common location.
C
They can be cured by complete resection.
D
They are associated with hyperostosis of the underlying bone, homogenous enhancement with contrast and an enhancing "dural tail" on imaging studies.
Question 36
Hydatid disease in the brain is commonly produced by
A
E.Voigeli
B
E.lveolaris
C
Oligarthrus
D
E.granulosus
Question 37
Which of the following is not a component of lower motor neuron lesion:
A
disuse atrophy
B
absent deep tendon reflexes
C
fasciculations and fibrillations
D
hypotonia
Question 38
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of apoptosis :
A
neuronal shrinkage
B
chromatin condensation
C
mitochondrial swelling
D
DNA fragmentation
Question 39
Arteriorvenous Malformations of the Brain are most commonly seen In the distribution of
A
Anterior cerebral artery
B
Basilar artery
C
Middle Cerebral artery
D
Posterior cerebral
Question 40
The myxopapillaryependymomas usually arise from: floor of the 4th
A
ventricle
B
subependymal layer
C
conusmedullaris
D
choroid plexus
Question 41
Characteristic well formed whorls and psammoma bodies are classically seen in which type of meningioma:
A
meningothelial
B
fibroblastic
C
transitional
D
angiomatous
Question 42
A cerebral lesion would produce the following deficit in sensory function in the contralateral extremity:
A
light touch
B
pinprick
C
temperature
D
two-point discrimination
Question 43
A patient falls from a roof and develops weakness of all four limbs immediately. He is brought to the emergency services of a hospital 6 hours later. On examination he has grade 3 quadriparesis and plain-Xrays of the cervical spine demonstrate C4-5 fracture dislocation. The best method to prevent futher mechanical damage to the spinal cord is
A
Philadelphia collar
B
Skull traction
C
dexamethasone in high doses
D
four post collar with partially restricted mobility
Question 44
In children 'Setting sun' is most commonly seen in
A
Craniopharyngiomas
B
Medulloblastoma
C
Hydrocephalous
D
Head Injuries
Question 45
Which of the following is a dopaminergic agonist
A
cabergoline
B
guanethedine
C
dobutamine
D
metoclopramide
Question 46
The two lateral ventricles are separated by:
A
falx cerebri
B
septum pellucidum
C
cavumvergae
D
corpus callosum
Question 47
Which of the following is not a component of the Parinaud's syndrome :
A
upward gaze paresis
B
light-near dissociation
C
inter nuclear opthalmoplegia
D
convergence-retraction nystagmus
Question 48
Broca's area is located in the
A
Superior temporal gyrus
B
Inferior frontal gyrus
C
Insular cortex
D
Middle temporal gyrus
Question 49
Transfer of visual information from one hemisphere to another is largely through
A
splenium of corpus callosum
B
rostrum of corpus callosum
C
geniculocalcarine tract
D
arcuate fasciculus
Question 50
Lesions involving the non dominant parietal lobe give rise to :
A
topographic memory loss
B
ideomotor apraxia
C
Gerstmann's syndrome
D
alexia
Question 51
In Kernohon's notch there is :
A
ipsilateral 3rd neve palsy and ipsilateral hemiparesis
B
constralateral 3rd nerve palsy and contralateral hemiparesis
C
ipsilateral 3rd nerve palsy and contralateral hemiparesis
D
contralateral 3rd nerve palsy and ipsilateral
Question 52
Which of the following is not a diagnostic feature of intramedullary lesions of spinal cord :
A
tract pains
B
dissociated sensory loss
C
spasticity
D
spuspended sensory loss
Question 53
Hemifacial spasm is usually most commonly caused by compression of the facial nerve by which posterior fossa artery:
A
superior cerebellar artery
B
basilar artery
C
anterior inferior cerebellar artery
D
posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Question 54
Sparing of macular vision is seen in
A
vascular lesions of the occipital cortex
B
involvement of geniculocalcarine fibers
C
Meyer's loop in the temporal lobe
D
Retrochiasmal compression
Question 55
A patient presents with cerebellar signs, downbeat nystagmus, posterior column involvement and wasting of small muscles of hand. The most likely diagnosis is :
A
basilar invagination with atlanto-axial dislocation
B
chiari malformation with syringomyelia
C
intramedullary tumour from C1-T1
D
4th ventricular ependymoma
Question 56
Which of the following is NOT a sign indicating raised intracranial Pressure
A
Sutural diastasis
B
Intracranial Calcification
C
Beaten silver appearance
D
Erosion of posterior clinoid processes
Question 57
Pronator drift with testing of outstretched supinated arms is indicative of pathology in which location of the motor system?
A
pyramidal system
B
extrapyramidal system
C
cerebellar system
D
posterior columns
Question 58
Mannitol reduced intracranial pressure by acting on
A
Tumour tissue
B
Normal brain tissue
C
Cerebral vasculature
D
CSF
Question 59
Otitic brain abscess is most commonly seen in the
A
Parietal lobe
B
Frontal lobe
C
Thalamus
D
Temporal lobe
Question 60
A 62 old man with no defintive history of trauma, with history of alcoholism, presented with gradual deterioration in sensorium and hemiparesis over the past 2 weeks. He also gave history of waxing and waning of symptoms. The most probable diagnosis is :  
A
vascular dementia
B
chronic subdural hematoma
C
normal pressure hydrocephalous
D
corpus callosalglioma
Question 61
The commonest site for extradural hematoma is
A
Subfrontal region
B
Parietal region
C
Parafalcine region
D
Temporal region
Question 62
Pressure upon the optic Chiasm from below should initially cause
A
Bilateral Superior Quadrantiric field defects
B
Bitemporal hemianopia
C
Bilateral Quadrantic field defects
D
Bilateral superior nasal field defects
Question 63
A patient who has sustained head injury, and is exhibiting decerebrate posturing,with no eye opening or vocal function has what score on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
A
2
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 64
A 45 years old patient with known hypertensive disease presents with sudden onset severe headache with transient loss of consciousness. A CT scan done within 24 hours shows blood in one sylvian fissure with a temporal lobe hematoma. The most probable cause is :
A
spontaneous hypertensive lobar hematoma
B
aneurysmal rupture
C
benign subarachnoid hemorrhage
D
temporal lobe tumour with bleed
Question 65
Inferior sagittal sinus drains into
A
Sigmoid sinus
B
Inferior petrosal sinus
C
Transverse sinus
D
Straight sinus
Question 66
Following aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage, vasospasm is usually seen during which time interval :
A
1-4 days
B
4-14 days
C
14-21 days
D
1-7 days
Question 67
Normally, anterior fontanelle fuses at about
A
6 months of age
B
10 months of age
C
18 months of age
D
36 months of age
Question 68
Which of the follwing is a paired circumventrical organ
A
habenular commissure
B
area postrema
C
subfornical organ
D
organum vasalosum of the lamina terminalis
Question 69
Which of the following statements is correct in relation to Glioblastomas:.
A
are more common in children than adults.
B
have an average survival of over 5 years
C
are characterized by increased cellularity, nuclear pleomorphism, the presence of mitoses, endothelial proliferation and necrosis.
D
can be cured by surgery alone.
Question 70
Depressed fracture over the midline of the skull is more likely to cause Weakness of
A
Lower limbs
B
Upper limbs
C
Hemiplegia
D
Quadriplagia
Question 71
A 40 year old female presents with radiating pain on right side in midthoracic region, stiffness and weakness of right leg and numbness in left leg. The weakness and numbness have gradually progressed from distal to proximal. On neurological examination, she is likely to have:
A
spastic paralysis of right leg, loss of vibration sense on right side and loss of pain and temperature sense of left side
B
sacral sparing of pain and temperature, spastic paralysis right leg and pain and temperature loss on left side
C
loss of tactile discrimination & proprioception on left side, loss of temperature sense on right side and hypotonic paralysis of right leg
D
spastic paralysis right leg, loss of pain and temperature right leg, vibration sense loss left leg.
Question 72
INCONGROUS Field defects are due to lesions of the
A
Optic Chiasm
B
Optic tract
C
Optic radiation
D
Occipital visual areas
Question 73
A patient's blood pressure is 120/60mmHg and ICP reading is 30mmHg. What is his cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)?
A
50 mm Hg
B
30 mm Hg
C
90 mm Hg
D
60 mm Hg
Question 74
Which of the following statements are true?
A
Choroid plexus papillomas in infants and children usually occur in the cerebellopontine angle.
B
Gliomatosiscerebri refers to spread of a glioblastomamultiforme outside the nervous system.
C
Pineal tumors often present with hydrocephalus due to compression of the aqueduct of Sylvius
D
Esthesioneuroblastomas typically occur in children
Question 75
Rosenthal fibers are usually abundantly seen n
A
juvenile pilocytic astrocytomas
B
gemistocytic astrocytomas
C
ependymomas
D
subependymal giant cell astrocytomas
Question 76
Which of the following is not a component of Horner's syndrome:  
A
miosis
B
correctible ptosis
C
anhydrosis
D
exophthalmos
Question 77
Which of the following statements is wrong
A
Meningiomas are benign tumours
B
Epilepsy is common with post-fossa tumours
C
Medulloblastomas produce seed lings spread through CSF
D
Central Nervous system lacks lymphatics
Question 78
Galactorrhea, Amenrrohea syndrome is most commonly caused by
A
Chromophobe adenoma
B
Prolactinoma
C
Chorionic Carcinoma
D
Basophil ademoma
Question 79
A positive Romberg test, performed standing with eyes closed, indicates a lesion in the:
A
cerebellum
B
peripheral nerve
C
proprioceptive system
D
visual system
Question 80
Calcification is most frequently seen in
A
Meningioma
B
Oligodendroglioma
C
Acoustic Neurinoma
D
Glloblastoma
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