Obstetrics and Gynaecology Quiz Question & Answers

Obstetrics and Gynaecology Quiz Question & Answers (Question Bank) Free Online Test For Medical Students like PG, PHD, Specialist exam entrance.

 Obstetrics and gynecology (or obstetrics and gynecology; often abbreviated to OB/GYN, OBG, O&G or Obs & Gynae) is the medical specialty that deals with obstetrics and gynaecology.

We have put total 50 Objective Type Question Answers on Obstetrics and Gynaecology, you can practice these question answers for free. Well you can also check list of Online Medical Entrance Mock Test / Quiz question comes from different areas on Medical.

This Obstetrics and Gynaecology Quiz questions answers are applicable for any kind of Medical PG Entrance exam or job related exam especially for PHD, MD, MS, M.Ch., D.M, Medical Students. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers Obstetrics and Gynaecology Quiz, each question having four alternate answers, once you select one answers of Obstetrics and Gynaecology Quiz, system will show you whether its correct or not.



Obstetrics and Gynaecology Quiz Question & Answers (Total 50 MCQs)

Obstetrics and Gynaecology Mock test (High Level)

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Question 1
All are features of Swyer's syndrome except
A
XY Karyotype
B
uterus present
C
primary amenorrhea
D
male phenotype
Question 2
Which is the most common type of female pelvis?
A
Gynaecoid
B
Anthropoid
C
Android
D
Platypelloid
Question 3
All are features of mullerian agenesis except
A
Absent uterus
B
Absent vagina
C
Absent ovary
D
Absent cervix
Question 4
A 20-year old normal looking women complaining of secondary amenorrheaand hot flushes was found to have raised FSH and LH levels. The differentialdiagnosis can include all except
A
Polyglandular autoimmune endocrine failure
B
Turner mosaics
C
Galactosaemia
D
Kallman's syndrome
Question 5
All can be used in management of PPH except
A
Misoprostol
B
Syntocinone
C
Syntometrine
D
Mifepristone
Question 6
The best option for a 42 year old woman G2P1+0 to exclude fetal chromosomal anomaly is
A
biochemical screen at 16-18weeks
B
Ultrasound at 11-13weeks for nuchal translucency
C
amniocentesis at 16wks for karyotype
D
ultrasound at 18wks for chromosomal and structural abnormality
Question 7
During pregnancy, diabetes with nephropathy falls in which category of Priscilla white classification:
A
A
B
B
C
R
D
F
Question 8
What percentage of singleton pregnancy presents as breech at term    
A
1%
B
3-4%
C
9-10%
D
15%
Question 9
Thiozolidinedione can be used for ovulation induction in PCOS with the risk of mainly
A
Renal toxicity
B
Hepatotoxicity
C
Neuro toxicity
D
Pancreatic toxicity
Question 10
Which of the following viruses does not cause fetal malformation
A
Rubella
B
Toxoplasma
C
Cytomegalo virus
D
HIV
Question 11
All are associated with recurrent abortions except
A
syphilis
B
Rh incompatibility
C
TORCH
D
genetic disorders
Question 12
The formation of primordial follicles in human fetus is completed by
A
4 weeks
B
8 weeks
C
14weeks
D
28 weeks
Question 13
WHO criteria for near miss maternal mortality include all except
A
Requirement of vasoactive drugs
B
Oxygen saturation <90 % for more than 60 minutes
C
Acute thrombocytopenia, platelet count < 1,00,000
D
Shock
Question 14
Regarding Prenatal Treatment of Mothers at Risk for Having an Affected Child with CAH
A
Dexamethasone is to be started after Chorion villus sampling
B
Treatment can be discontinued in a female child
C
Treatment can be discontinued in a male child.
D
Dexamethasone is devoid of any potential risks to the fetus
Question 15
The most common side effect with the use of metformin for ovulation induction is
A
Hyperglycemia
B
Hot flashes
C
Headache
D
Gastrointestinal upsets
Question 16
PBAC Scoring is used in which of the following :
A
Menorrhagia
B
Endometriosis
C
Vesicovaginal fistula
D
Myoma
Question 17
Choriod plexus cyst in fetal head on ultrasound is associated with all of the following chromosomal anomalies except
A
Trisomy 18
B
Trisomy 21
C
Trisomy 13
D
Triploidy
Question 18
Amount of amniotic fluid at 12 weeks period of gestation is
A
50 ml
B
100 ml
C
150 ml
D
200 ml
Question 19
placental site trophopbastic disease is associated with elevated level of
A
HCG
B
Inhibin
C
AFP
D
Alkaline phosphatase
Question 20
Genetic baby cannot be offered to the couple in
A
Turner's syndrome
B
Seehan's syndrome
C
Androgen insensitivity syndrome
D
Rockytansky Kustar Hausar syndrome
Question 21
According to latest WHO 2010 criteria, cut-off levels for normal semen is:
A
Sperm count- 15mil/ml; motility- 32% (PR); morphology- 4%
B
Sperm count- 15mil/ml; motility- 32% (PR+ NP) ; morphology- 14%
C
Sperm count- 15mil/ml; motility- 32% (PR + NP); morphology- 4%
D
Sperm count- 20mil/ml; motility- 50% (PR +NP); morphology- 50%
Question 22
Elective cesarean section is indicated in
A
Aortic aneurysm
B
Mitral stenosis
C
Aortic regurgitation
D
Cyanotic heart disease
Question 23
For first trimester diagnosis of Down Syndrome which of the following testgives best results
A
CVS
B
Serum Alpha fetoprotein
C
PAPP-A
D
Serum HCG
Question 24
Women with polycystic ovary syndrome have
A
Increase in LH pulse frequency and amplitude
B
Decrease in GnRH pulse frequency
C
Normal or increased levels of inhibin B
D
Increased sensitivity to insulin
Question 25
Which dermatome approximates the level of the umbilicus?    
A
T7-T11
B
T12
C
T10
D
L1
Question 26
Which type of fracture is most common in the newborn
A
Humeral
B
Femoral
C
Manibular
D
Calvicular
Question 27
The right ovarian vein empties into which of the following veins
A
Vena cava
B
Renal vein
C
Internal iliac vein
D
External iliac vein
Question 28
All can be used as emergency contraception except
A
Cu IUD
B
LNG IUD
C
Ulipristal acetate
D
Levonorgesterol
Question 29
Jaundice due to Rh incompatibility appears in newborn at
A
24 hours
B
50 hours
C
72 hours
D
7 day
Question 30
Which vaccination is not safe in pregnancy?
A
Hepatitis B
B
Rabies
C
Diphtheria
D
MMR
Question 31
What factor influences most the pregnancy rate with intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)?
A
The woman's age
B
The quality of sperm
C
Site of sperm retrival
D
Length of infertility
Question 32
Fetal fibronectin
A
Is a liposaccharide
B
Normally found in vaginal secretions after 34 weeks POG
C
Value >30 ng/mL is considered positive
D
It is produced by chorion
Question 33
Fimbrio ovarian accessibility test is said to be positive when the length of thfimbria ovarica is
A
>2cm
B
>2.5cm
C
>3cm
D
>3.5cm
Question 34
If fetal echocardiography is reported as congenital heart block, mother should be investigated for :
A
Congenital heart disease
B
Systemic lupus erythematosis
C
Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
D
Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
Question 35
The maximum capacity of Bukri balloon used in PPH is
A
200 ml
B
500 ml
C
600ml
D
1000 ml
Question 36
TNM classification is most often used in relation to following female genital tract malignancy?
A
Carcinoma cervix
B
Carcinoma ovary
C
Carcinoma vulva
D
Carcinoma vagina
Question 37
Methyl dopa in pregnancy is which FDA category drug?
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
X
Question 38
Following evacuating of hydatidiform mole decline in HCG titres occurs at a rate of
A
One log every week
B
One log every 10 days
C
One log every 19 days
D
One log every day
Question 39
A couple are seen in infertility clinic for follow-up of their results. The femalepartner has a normal day 21 progesterone level. Hysterosalpingography (HSG) shows bilateral patent tubes. Repeat semen analysis shows a volume of 2.8 ml, a pH of 7.4 and a sperm count of 3 x 106 million/ml. The couple arevery keen on being genetic parents. The best management option is :    
A
Intrauterine insemination
B
In vitro fertilization
C
Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
D
Donor Insemination
Question 40
Fallopian tubal peristalsis is affected in
A
Turner's syndrome
B
Noonan's syndrome
C
Kallman's syndrome
D
Kartagenar's syndrome
Question 41
In patients requiring heparin therapy during pregnancy which of the following dietary supplements should be recommended?
A
Folic Acid
B
Calcium
C
Copper
D
Zinc
Question 42
If mother is diagnosed HIV positive during pregnancy, according to WHO2013, infant prophylaxis should be given for what duration
A
6 weeks
B
12 weeks
C
18 weeks
D
24 weeks
Question 43
Which of the following CTG patterns is indicative of fetal anaemia
A
Early deceleration
B
Late deceleration
C
Variable deceleration
D
Sinusoidal pattern
Question 44
Diameter of engagement in brow presentation is
A
10.2 cm
B
9.8 cm
C
13.4 cm
D
14 cm
Question 45
Causes for oligoamnios include all except
A
Placental abruptio
B
Indomethacin
C
Neural tube defect
D
Polycystic kidneys in fetus
Question 46
Use of following Anti-epileptic drug is contraindicated in pregnancy
A
Sodium Valproate
B
Methadone
C
Phenobarbitone
D
Phenytoin Sodium
Question 47
A major contraindication to the use of 15 methyl prostaglandin F2 α is
A
Hypertension
B
Pre-eclampsia
C
Renal failure
D
Bronchial Asthma
Question 48
The signs of androgen excess are all except:
A
Acne
B
Seborrhea
C
Temporal balding
D
Acanthosis nigricans
Question 49
Endometriosis has not been reported in
A
Lung
B
Stomach
C
Appendix
D
Pancreas
Question 50
Half life of letrozole is
A
120 hours
B
90 hours
C
45 hours
D
70 hours
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