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PMET Online Practice Test

PMET Online Mock Test: Punjab Medical Entrance Test also known as Punjab PMT i.e Pre-Medical Test Questions Answers for medical entrance exams subjects : Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology). This mock test having 25 questions in each subjects, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this Punjab PMT test question details at the end of the quiz.

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PMET 2016 -Punjab Medical Entrance 2016 by Baba Farid University of Health Sciences Medical  questions answers are applicable for any kind of UG medical entrance exam in India. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers PMET critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking Medical level exam. For more resources you can go through PMET Previous Year Question Papers Answers.




PMET Question Answers- Botany

Congratulations - you have completed PMET Question Answers- Botany.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
1:2:1 phenotypic and genotypic ratio is found in
A
complementary genes
B
blending inheritance
C
multiple alleles
D
pseudo alleles
Question 2
In cell cycle, during which phase, chromosomes are arranged in equatorial plate?
A
Metaphase
B
Anaphase
C
Telophase
D
Prophase
Question 3
Botanical name of ‘chana’ is
A
Cicer arietinum
B
Phaseolus aurens
C
Lablab purpureus
D
Dolichos
Question 4
Heterocysts are present in
A
Riccia
B
Ulothrix
C
Albugo
D
Nostoc
Question 5
In which genera endospores are formed for reproduction?
A
Monococcus and Clostridium
B
Bacillus and clostridium
C
Mucor and Bacillus
D
None of the above
Question 6
Auxin in plant means for:
A
cell elongation
B
fruit ripening
C
cell division
D
inhibit the root growth
Question 7
The most important force which pulls water up in tall trees is:
A
imbibition force
B
osmotic force
C
cohesive force
D
electromagnetic force
Question 8
Top - shaped multiciliate male gametes and the mature seed which bears only one embryo with two cotyledons, are characteristic features of
A
polypetalous angiosperms
B
gamopetalous angiosperms
C
conifers
D
cycads
Question 9
The back bone of RNA consists of which of the following sugar?
A
Deoxyribose
B
Ribose
C
Sucrose
D
Maltose
Question 10
The soil which is transported by wind is known as
A
colluvial
B
eolian
C
alluvial
D
glacial soil
Question 11
The edible dry fruit ‘chilgoza’ is
A
fruit of Cycas
B
fruit of Pinus gerardiana
C
seed of Cycas
D
seed of Pin us gerardiana
Question 12
Double fertilization occurs in
A
Riccia
B
Pteridium
C
Cycos
D
Capsella
Question 13
Agricultural chemicals include:
A
growth regulators
B
fertilizers
C
pesticides
D
all of the above
Question 14
The thylakoid in chloroplast are arranged as:
A
inter connected disc
B
inter connected sacs
C
stacked discs
D
none
Question 15
The light phase of photosynthesis is called:
A
Hill reaction
B
photo action
C
pigment action
D
chlorophyllous process
Question 16
Stop codons are
A
AUG, GUG
B
UAA, UGA, UAG
C
UAC, UGG
D
AGU, AGA, UAC
Question 17
Spindle fibre is made up of
A
tubulin
B
humulin
C
intermediate filament
D
flagellin
Question 18
Ubisch bodies are present in
A
pollen tube
B
pollen gain
C
microspore
D
tapetum
Question 19
In Ruscus, the stem is a
A
phyllode
B
cladode
C
offset
D
sucker
Question 20
Zn - 1 condition represent:
A
tetrasomy
B
trisomy
C
monosomy
D
multisomy
Question 21
Which of the following is used as green manure?
A
Azolla
B
Azadirachta indica
C
Crotolaria juncea
D
Hevea brassiliansis
Question 22
More than 70% of world’s freshwater is contained in
A
Antarctica
B
Glaciers and Mountains
C
Greenland
D
Polar ice
Question 23
The plant Cuscuta show maximum photosynthesis in:
A
red light
B
blue light
C
green light
D
no photosynthesis at all
Question 24
A lake with nutrients is called
A
trophic
B
euphoric
C
oligotrophic
D
eutrophic
Question 25
Lichen is the pioneer vegetation on which succession?
A
Hydrosere
B
Lithosere
C
Psammosere
D
Xerosere
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PMET Online Practice Test- Chemistry

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Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which of the following is an example of conjugated protein?
A
Albumin
B
Globulin
C
Glutelin
D
Glycoprotein
Question 2
The tendency for catenation in group 14 elements varies in the order
A
C>>Si>Gc=Sn> Pb
B
C<
C
C>>Si
D
C>>Si=Ge=Sn>Pb
Question 3
Cumene process is the most important commercial method for the manufacture of phenol. Cuinene is
A
L-methylethyl benzene
B
ethyl benzene
C
vinyl benzene
D
propyl benzene
Question 4
Monomer of nucleic acid is
A
nudeotide
B
nucleoside
C
amino acid
D
carboxylic acid
Question 5
When a radioactive substance is kept in vacuum, the rate of its disintergration per second
A
increases considerably
B
is not affected
C
suffers a slight decrease
D
increases only if the products are gaseous
Question 6
Bond order of N—O bonds in nitrate ion is
A
1.25
B
1.50
C
1.33
D
1.0
Question 7
Which of the following solution has highest boiling point?
A
0.1 M urea
B
0.1 M sucrose
C
0.1 M NaNO3
D
0.1 M Al(NO3)
Question 8
If one strand of DNA has the sequence ATCGTATG, the sequence in the complementary strand would be
A
TAGCTTAC
B
TCACATAC
C
TAGCATAC
D
TACGATAC
Question 9
Which of the following enzymes hydroJyses starch to glucose?
A
Amylase
B
Invertase
C
Lactase
D
Maltase
Question 10
Among the halogens, the one which is oxidised by nitric acid is
A
fluorine
B
iodine
C
chlorine
D
bromine
Question 11
f volume containing gas is compressed to half, how many moles of gas remained in the vessel?
A
Just double
B
just half
C
same
D
more than double
Question 12
An aqueous solution whose pH is zero will be called as
A
acidic
B
basic
C
neutral
D
amphoteric
Question 13
Which bond is most polar?
A
F—F
B
I—F
C
Cl—F
D
Br—F
Question 14
The order of a reactionwith respect to one of the reacting component Y, is zero, it implies that
A
the reaction is going on at a constant rate
B
the rate of reaction does not vary with temperature
C
the reaction rate is independent of the concentration of V
D
the rate of formation of the activated complex Is zero
Question 15
Fluorescejn is an example of
A
azo dyes
B
phthalein dyes
C
triphenyl methane dyes
D
nitro dyes
Question 16
Which of the following hormones is secreted from adrenal cortex?
A
Cortisone
B
Estrogen
C
Progesterone
D
Testosterone
Question 17
The metal which forms ammonium nitrate by reaction with dilute nitric acid is
A
Al
B
Fe
C
Pb
D
Mg
Question 18
Decomposition of H202 is prevented by
A
KOH
B
Mn02
C
aceranilide
D
oxalic add
Question 19
The bond angle and % of d-character mSF6 are
A
1200, 20%
B
90°. 33%
C
109°, 25%
D
90°, 25%
Question 20
Which of the following aqueous solutions will have highest freezing point?
A
0.1 m Cad2
B
0.1 m KCI
C
0.1 m glucose
D
0.1 mAl2(S04)3
Question 21
Red lead is an example of
A
basir oxide
B
stiper oxide
C
mixed oxide
D
amphoteric oxide
Question 22
Amphetamine is used as
A
anaesthetic
B
antidepressant
C
antimalarial
D
analgesic
Question 23
Which of the following compounds is an azo dye?
A
Maitlus yellow
B
Malachite green
C
Methyl orange
D
Mercurochrome
Question 24
The elements with atomic numbers 9, 17, 35, 53, 85 are all
A
noble gases
B
halogens
C
heavy metals
D
light metals
Question 25
The bad smelling substance formed by the action of alcoholic caustic potash on chloroform and aniline is
A
nitrobenzene
B
phenyl isocyanide
C
phenyl cyanide
D
phenyl isocynate
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PMET Online Mock Test- Physics

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Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The image of a small electric bulb fixed on the wall of a room is to be obtained on the opposite wall 4 m away by means of a large convex lens. The maximum possible focal length of the lens required for this purpose will be
A
O.5 m
B
1.0 m
C
1.5 m
D
2.0 m
Question 2
Three guns are aimed at the centre of a circle. They are mounted on the circle, 120° apart. They fire in a tiziied sequence, such that the three bullets collide at the centre and mash into a stationary lump. Two of the bullets have identical masses of 4.5 g each and speeds of v1 and v2. The third bullet has a mass of 2.50 g and a speed of 575 m/s. Find the unknown speeds.
A
200 m/s each
B
145 m/sand 256m/s
C
536 m/s and 320 m/s
D
None of the above
Question 3
With a standard rectangular bar magnet the time period of a vibration magnetometer is 4 s. The bar magnet is cut parallel to its length into four equal pieces. The time period of vibration magnetometer when one piece is used (in second) (bar magnet breadth is small) is
A
16
B
8
C
4
D
2
Question 4
The maximum velocity to which a proton can accelerated in a cyclotron of 10 MHz frequency and radius 50 cm is
A
6.28x108m/s
B
3.14x1O8m/s
C
6.28 x 10 7 m /s
D
3.14x107m/s
Question 5
Resultant of two vectors A and B is of magnitude P. If B is reversed, then resultant is of magnitude Q. What is the value of P2+Q2
A
2(A2+B2)
B
2(A2 - B2)
C
(A2 - B2)
D
(A2 + B2)
Question 6
Two charges +q and —q are kept apart. Then at any point on the right bisector of line joining the two charges
A
the electric field strength is zero
B
the electric potential is zero
C
both electric potential and electric field strength are zero
D
both electric potential and electric field strength are non-zero
Question 7
The radius of the path of an electron moving at a speed of 3 x 107 m/s perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 x 10-4 T is nearly
A
15 cm
B
45 cm
C
27 cm
D
34 cm
Question 8
A body trave1.1ng along a straight line traverse one-third the distance with a velocity of 5 m/s. The remaining part of the distance was covered with velocity 3 m/s for half the time and with velocity 2 m/s for the other half of the tirnc. Thc avcrage velocity of the body over the whole time of motion will be
A
3 m/s
B
5 m/s
C
2 m/s
D
2.5 m/s
Question 9
The number of turns in primary and secondary coils of a transformer is 50 and 200 respectively. If the current in the primary coil is 4 A, then the current in the secondary coil is
A
1 A
B
2 A
C
4 A
D
5 A
Question 10
The density of copper is 9x 103 kg/m3 and its atomic mass is 63.5 u. Each copper atom provides one free electron. Estimate the number of free electrons per cubic metre in copper.
A
1019
B
1023
C
1025
D
1029
Question 11
A projectile is thrown with an initial velocity of v = (pi+qJ) m/s. If the range of the projectile is double the maximum height reached by it, then
A
p=2q
B
q= 4 p
C
q=2 p
D
q=p
Question 12
X-rays of wavelength 0.140 nm are scattered from a block of carbon. What will be the wavelengths of X-rays scattered at 90°?
A
0.140 nm
B
0.142 nm
C
O.144nm
D
0.146nm
Question 13
Which of the following statements is not correct when a junction diode is in forward bias?
A
The width of depletion region decreases.
B
Free electrons on n-side will move towards the junction.
C
Holes on p-side move towards the junction.
D
Electron on n-side and holes on p-side will move away from junction.
Question 14
A conductor has been given a charge -3 x 107 by transferiing electrons. Mass increase (in kg) of the conductor and the number of electrons added to the conductor are respectively
A
2x10-16and2x 1031
B
5x10-31and 5 x 1019
C
3x10-19and 9 x 1016
D
2x10-18 and 2 x 1012
Question 15
An electron initially at rest fall a distance of 1.5 cm in a uniform electric field of magnitude  2 x 104 N/C. The time taken by the electron to fall this distance is
A
1.3 x 10 2 s
B
2.1 x 10-12 s
C
1.6 x 10-10s
D
2.9 x 10-9 s
Question 16
A body of mass 1.0 kg strikes elastically with another body at rest and continues to moi in the same direction with one-fourth of initial velocity. The mass of the other body
A
0.6 kg
B
2.4 kg
C
3.0 kg
D
4.0 kg
Question 17
The pressure on a swimmer 20 m below the surface of water at sea level is
A
1.0 atm
B
2.0 atm
C
2.5 atm
D
3.0 atm
Question 18
Moment of inertia does nor depend on
A
mass distribution of body
B
torque
C
shape of the body
D
the position of axis of rotation
Question 19
The potential energy of 4-particles each of mass 1 kg placed at the four vertices of a square of side length 1 mis
A
+ 4MG
B
—7.5G
C
-5.4G
D
+6.3 G
Question 20
The phenomenon of beats can take place
A
for longitudinal waves only
B
for transverse waves only
C
for sound waves only
D
for both longitudinal and transverse waves
Question 21
The backside of a truck is open and a box of 40 kg is placed 5 m away from the rear end. The coefficient of friction of the box with the surface of the truck is 0.15. The truck starts from rest with 2 m/s2 acceleration. Calculate the distance covered by the truck when the box falls off.
A
20m
B
30 m
C
40 m
D
50 m
Question 22
A solid sphere of mass 1.0 kg and diameter 0.3 m is suspended from a wire. If the twisting couple per unit twist for the wire is 6 x 1O-3 N-m/rad, then the time period of small oscillations wifi be
A
0.7s
B
7.7s
C
77 s
D
777 s
Question 23
A monoatomic gas is kept at room temperature 300 K. Calculate the average kinetic energy of gas molecule (Use k =1.38 x 10-23 MKS units)
A
0.138eV
B
0.062eV
C
0.039 eV
D
0.013eV
Question 24
A train approaching a railway crossing at a speed of 120 kin/h sounds a whistle at frequency 640 Hz when it is 300 m away from the crossing. The speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. What will be the frequency heard by a person standing on a road perpendicular to the track through the crossing at a distance of 400 m from the crossing?
A
680 Hz
B
640 Hz
C
720 Hz
D
358 Hz
Question 25
A uniform magnetic field B = 1.2 mt is directed vertically upward throughout the volume of a laboratory chamber. A proton (mp =1.67 x 10-27 kg) enters the laboratory horizontally from south to north. Calculate the magnitude of centripetal acceleration of the proton if its speed is 3 x 107 m/s.
A
3.45 x 1012 m/s2
B
1.67x1012 m/s2
C
5.25 x 1012 m/s2
D
2.75x1012 m/s2
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PMET Sample Quiz Test- Zoology

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Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
An example of innate immunity is
A
TH-cells
B
T-lymphocytes
C
B-lymphocytes
D
PMNL-neutrophils
Question 2
Which of the following can be controlled by using biopesticides?
A
Insects
B
Diseases
C
Weeds
D
All of these
Question 3
Auxetic growth is increase in
A
cell volume only
B
cell number only
C
fatty tissue
D
intercellular material
Question 4
Vaccines are
A
Curative medicines
B
Monoclonal antibodies
C
treated bacteria or viruses
D
MHC proteins
Question 5
Which hormone is secreted in a woman if pregnancy has occurred?
A
Estrogen
B
Progesterone
C
Luteinizing hormone
D
Chorionic gonadotropin
Question 6
 Reason, will, memory, intelligence and emotions are governed by
A
cerebellum
B
mid brain
C
medulla oblongata
D
cerebral hemispheres
Question 7
Animals which have well marked digestive cavity are put under
A
Metazoa
B
Bryozoa
C
Parazoa
D
Enterozoa
Question 8
Product of biotechnology is
A
transgenic crops (GM crops)
B
humulin
C
biofertilizer
D
All of these
Question 9
The drugs which do not develop physiological dependence are
A
opiates
B
sedatives
C
stimulants
D
hallucinogens
Question 10
Bath sponges are found in
A
red sea
B
Gulf of Mexico
C
Mediterranean sea
D
All of these
Question 11
Phase common in aerobic and anaerobic respiration is
A
Krebs cycle
B
glycolysis
C
glycogenolysis
D
ETS
Question 12
 In Ascaris, eggs are fertilised in the
A
vagina
B
oviducts
C
lower pans of uteri
D
seminal vesicles
Question 13
Coral reefs are formed by
A
molluscs
B
coelenterates
C
protozoans
D
echinoderms
Question 14
Oxyntic cells secrete
A
HCI
B
trypsin
C
NaOH
D
pepsinogen
Question 15
Iron free compound of haemoglobin is
A
globin
B
haematin
C
bilirubin
D
haemotoxin
Question 16
Which of the following disease is caused by a nematode?
A
Leprosy
B
Filariasis
C
Amoebiasis
D
Poliomyelitis
Question 17
Menstruation is due to sudden
A
reduction of FSH
B
increase of LH
C
reduction in estrogen and progesterone
D
None of these
Question 18
The expulsion of completely developed foetus from the uterus is known as
A
ovulation
B
oviposition
C
gestation
D
parturition
Question 19
Diplosegments are found in
A
Spider
B
insect
C
Millipede
D
centipede
Question 20
Urea synthesis occurs in
A
kidney
B
liver
C
brain
D
muscles
Question 21
Total cleavage in egg is possible in
A
telolecithal
B
oligolecithal
C
centrolecithal
D
macrolecithal
Question 22
Which foramen is paired in mammalian brain?
A
Fora men of Luschka
B
Fora men of Magendie
C
Foramen of Monro
D
Inter-ventricular foramen
Question 23
Broken arms are regenerated in
A
fishes
B
molluscs
C
Echinoderms
D
human beings
Question 24
Corpus luteum produces
A
progesterone
B
estrogen
C
luteotropin hormone
D
luteinizing hormone
Question 25
In embryos of placental mammals
A
yolk sac develops but has no yolk.
B
yolk sac develops and has yolk
C
yolk sac does not develop
D
None of the above
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