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SET Earth science Question Answers

SET Earth science Question Answers for competitive exams: This mock test having mcq question each also from Paper II, Paper III Syllabus, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this SET Earth science test question details at the end of the quiz.

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State Level Eligibility Test is also know as SET  (State Eligibility TestEarth science questions answers are applicable for any kind of Higher Education especially for Lecturer and PHD examination like UGC NET And CSIR NET. . You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers SET Earth science critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking LS/PHD level exam.

SET/SLET Earth science Paper II - Online Mock Test

Congratulations - you have completed SET/SLET Earth science Paper II - Online Mock Test.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Mean radius of the earth’s orbit about the Sun is expressed in       
A
Astronomical unit
B
Light year
C
Aristotalian year
D
Geometrical unit
Question 2
Earth’s only natural satellite is        
A
Sun
B
Mercury
C
Moon
D
Venus
Question 3
“Each planet is roughly twice as far from the Sun as its closest neighbour” is known as      
A
Nebular hypothesis
B
Bode’s law
C
Darcy’s law
D
Coulombs law
Question 4
Mohorovicic discontinuity represents boundary between       
A
Mantle and outer core
B
Outer core and inner core
C
Crust and mantle
D
Weathered rock and unaltered rock
Question 5
Statement 1 : Physical equipotential surface of gravity is called geoid Statement 2 : Geoid reflects the true distribution of mass inside the earth Statement 3 : Geoid differs from the theoretical ellipsoid by small amount       
A
1 is true, 2 and 3 false
B
1 is false, 2 and 3 true
C
1 and 2 are true but 3 is false
D
All the three statements are true
Question 6
Magnetisation acquired by earth during slow settling of the fine grained particles in the presence of external field is called        
A
Isothermal remnant magnetisation
B
Detrital remnant magnetisation
C
Chemical remnant magnetisation
D
Viscous remnant magnetisation
Question 7
11 year cycle of external component of earth’s magnetic field is called        
A
Diurnal variation
B
Magnetic storm
C
Sun spot activity
D
Local magnetic variation
Question 8
Famous sentence of James Hutton, “Present is the key to the past” is based on      
A
Principle of uniformitarianism
B
Principle of fossil content
C
Principle of lithology
D
Principle of superposition
Question 9
Silicified wood is an example of        
A
Cast and mould
B
Petrifaction
C
Ichnofossils
D
Trace fossils
Question 10
The nearest planet to the Sun is        
A
Jupiter
B
Venus
C
Mercury
D
Mars
Question 11
Amongst the silicates, pyroxenes belong to        
A
Orthosilicates
B
Sorosilicates
C
Chain silicates
D
Sheet silicates
Question 12
Igneous rocks with SiO2 > 62% are designated as        
A
Basic
B
Acidic
C
Intermediate
D
Ultrabasic
Question 13
What is the name of the rock dominated by mineral calcite?       
A
Limestone
B
Granulite
C
Phyllite
D
Eclogite
Question 14
Metamorphic rock with conspicuous parallel structure is called       
A
Granulite
B
Marble
C
Quartzite
D
Schist
Question 15
Wall rock alterations that indicate mineral concentrations include       
A
Carbonatization
B
Albititization
C
Chloritization
D
All of the above
Question 16
Spalling is a term associated with      
A
Fault
B
Weathering
C
Glacial action
D
Sea floor spreading
Question 17
The dry porous area of pebbles and boulders at the foot hills of Himalayas is called      
A
Bhabar
B
Bhangar
C
Terai
D
Khadar
Question 18
The sediments that a stream moves along the bottom of the stream channel is called       
A
Bottom load
B
Suspended load
C
Fine load
D
Bed load
Question 19
The type of soil where horizon formation is absent is       
A
Vertisol
B
Inseptisol
C
Entisol
D
Ultisol
Question 20
Which of the following statements on glacial landform are correct ? 1. Arete is the knife-edged boundary between cirques 2. Medial moraines occur in the middle of the glacier 3. Drumlins are a group of small hills made by glacial erosion 4. Glacial striae indicate the direction of movement of glaciers      
A
1, 2 and 4
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1 and 3
D
2 and 4
Question 21
The fault in which the hanging wall has gone down relative to the foot wall is known as       
A
Normal fault
B
Reverse fault
C
Transcurrent fault
D
Strike slip fault
Question 22
The fold which is convex upwards is called ____________ fold.         
A
Syncline
B
Recumbent
C
Synform
D
Antiform
Question 23
Which of the following show the effect of tensional forces? 1. Columnar joints 2. Mud cracks 3. Cross joints 4. Bedding joints   
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 24
The fold having angular hinge is known as        
A
Tight fold
B
Chevron fold
C
Parallel fold
D
Similar fold
Question 25
The ratio of the shearing stress to the shearing strain is      
A
Poisson’s ratio
B
Incompressibility
C
Young’s modulus
D
Rigidity modulus
Question 26
The branch of geophysics, which deals with seismic waves is called      
A
Seismology
B
Limnology
C
Palynology
D
None of the above
Question 27
The upper shell of the earth up to 100 km depth is called       
A
Crust
B
Lithosphere
C
Biosphere
D
Asthenosphere
Question 28
______________ is the point situated on the surface of the earth above the focus of an earthquake.       
A
Epicentre
B
Centre of gravity
C
Focal point
D
Stress location
Question 29
____________ is an example of sea floor spreading.      
A
San Marina trench
B
San Andreas fault
C
Mid Atlantic ridge
D
Rocky and Andes mountains
Question 30
Tsunamis are developed due to 1. Submarine quakes 2. Floods 3. Volcanic eruptions within oceans 4. Cyclones     
A
1 and 3 are correct
B
1 and 2 are correct
C
3 and 4 are correct
D
All are correct
Question 31
The oceanic conveyor belt flows continuously in      
A
Arctic ocean
B
Atlantic ocean
C
Indian ocean
D
Pacific ocean
Question 32
Continental shelf is defined as      
A
The highest of the continent from mean sea level
B
The highest difference between two continents
C
The zone around the continents from the low water mark seaward upto the continental slope
D
The distance between two continents
Question 33
Water masses are identified by        
A
Temperature, salinity, nutrients and oxygen content
B
Temperature they possess
C
Depth at which they occur
D
The mass of water they possess
Question 34
The force due to the rotation of the earth is       
A
Pressure gradient force
B
Fractional force
C
Gravity force
D
Coriolis force
Question 35
In the atmosphere, meteorologically, the most significant waves are        
A
Sound
B
Gravity
C
Rossby
D
Electromagnetic
Question 36
The type of low frequency gravity wave trapped in a vertical boundary on the equator is called        
A
Shearing gravity
B
Kelvin wave
C
Rossby wave
D
Internal wave
Question 37
The height of the Prandtl layer is       
A
l0m
B
50m
C
500m
D
1500m
Question 38
The layer in which ozone is present is called     
A
Troposphere
B
Stratosphere
C
Mesosphere
D
Exosphere
Question 39
In an inversion layer       
A
Temperature decreases with height
B
Temperature increases with height
C
Temperature is zero
D
Temperature is constant
Question 40
The approximation where density variation is taken only in the pressure gradient term and not in the other terms is called      
A
Hydrostatic approximation
B
Geostrophic approximation
C
Boussinesq approximation
D
Brunt Vaisala approximation
Question 41
The word ‘ecosystem” was coined by       
A
Haeckle
B
Buckle
C
Alexander
D
Tansley
Question 42
The term “overburden” is associated with       
A
Opencast mining
B
Underground mining
C
Strip mining
D
Offshore mining
Question 43
Which of the following statements are incorrect? 1. 0.4 to 0.5 microns is not a part of the visible band 2. 0.7 to 0.8 microns is not a part of the visible band 3. Radio waves have the shortest wavelength 4. Gamma ray band is also known as infrared band      
A
1, 3 and 4
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 2 and 3
D
1, 2 and 4
Question 44
‘Minamata” disease is the result of       
A
Air pollution
B
Nuclear pollution
C
Water pollution
D
Noise pollution
Question 45
Primary ecological succession may be observed in        
A
Deep forest
B
New volcanic islands
C
Coastal areas
D
Delta region
Question 46
The international decade for natural hazard and their mitigation was observed by UNO during     
A
1980s
B
1990s
C
2000s
D
2010s
Question 47
Hot spots in biodiversity is the region, which shows       
A
Abundant availability of plants and animals
B
Richest and most threatened reservoirs of plants and animals
C
Equal distribution of plants and animals
D
Sparse distribution of plants and animals
Question 48
Identify the correct sequence of processes in hydrological cycle       
A
Precipitation, condensation, run off and evaporation
B
Run off, condensation, evaporation and precipitation
C
Condensation, evaporation, precipitation and run off
D
Evaporation, condensation, precipitation and run off
Question 49
The correct erosional sequence in the degradation of land     
A
Gully, ravine, rill and bad land
B
Rill, ravine, bad land and gully
C
Rill, gully, ravine and bad land
D
Ravine, gully, rill and bad land
Question 50
Which one of the following is an Indian satellite sensor?        
A
TM
B
LISS II
C
HRV
D
MSS
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SET/SLET Earth science Paper III - Online Mock Test

Congratulations - you have completed SET/SLET Earth science Paper III - Online Mock Test.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
In X-ray diffraction, the equation, nλ= 2dsin ᶿ is known as _______ law.    
A
Roentgen
B
Becquerel
C
Curie
D
Braggs
Question 2
Which one of the following statements is correct?      
A
Komatiite is an ultrabasic plutonic rock
B
Syenite is an acidic volcanic rock
C
Tholeiite is a basic volcanic rock
D
Dunite is an Mg rich carbonate rock
Question 3
A very large joint which can be traced over an extensive area is described commonly as a      
A
Columnar joint
B
Plunging fold
C
Dome
D
Master joint
Question 4
Match the following
 List-I  (Species)   List-II (Phylum)
 a. Cidaris 1. Coelentrata
 b. Productus 2. Mollusca
 c. Corals 3. Brachipoda
 d. Trigonia 4. Echinodermata
    
 a b c d
 (A) 2 4 1 3
 (B) 1 2 3 4
 (C) 4 3 1 2
 (D) 3 4 2 1
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 5
Assertion A: Different inorganic and organic structures are formed in sedimentary rocks Reason R : The structure ‘Petrifaction’ is of inorganic origin      
A
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
B
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C
A is true but R is false
D
A is false but R is true
Question 6
The chemical structures formed in sedimentary rocks are I. Striations II. Stylolites III. Nodules IV. Geodes       
A
I, II and III are correct
B
I and II are correct
C
II and III are correct
D
II, III and IV are correct
Question 7
Oceans may be the source of I. Zeolites II. Nodules III. Placer deposits IV. Phosphorites     
A
II, III and IV are correct
B
I, II and IV are correct
C
I, II and III are correct
D
I, II, III and IV are correct
Question 8
Assertion A: Low atomic elements like oxygen (O), hydrogen (H), sulphur (S) and carbon (C) are used in the studies of stable isotope geochemistry. Reason R : Isotopes of above cited low atomic number elements are well fractionated in the course of certain chemical and physical processes occurring in nature, and the variations in isotopic compositions of these elements are easy to determine by mass spectrometer.     
A
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
B
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
C
A is true but R is false
D
A is false but R is true
Question 9
Arrange in the decreasing order of Fe-content in the principal layers of the earth, using the number code given below I. Oceanic crust II. Continental crust III. Core IV. Mantle       
A
I, II, III, IV
B
II, III, IV, I
C
III, IV, II, I
D
III, IV, I, II
Question 10
The highest amount of moisture content is present in the coaly matter      
A
Peat
B
Lignite
C
Bituminous coal
D
Anthracite
Question 11
The percentage of methane and ethane constituents in natural gas is       
A
50% to 60%
B
60% to 70%
C
70% to 80%
D
80% to 90%
Question 12
Eastern Ghats of India represents a      
A
Craton
B
Mobile belt
C
Rift
D
Proterozoic sedimentary basin
Question 13
Eustatic sea level changes occur due to the following reasons I. Changes in volume of sea water due to melting of glaciers II. Change in the size of the ocean basins that contains it III. Decrease in the feeding by rivers       
A
I and III
B
I and II
C
II and III
D
I. II and III
Question 14
The porosity of a rock depends on I. Shape of the grain II. Packing of the grain III. Size of the grain IV. Sorting of the grain       
A
I and II
B
I, II, III and IV
C
I, III and IV
D
I, II and III
Question 15
In Wenner’s array of resistivity prospecting, the current electrode separation is _________ of the potential electrode separation.        
A
One fifth
B
One third
C
Four times
D
Three times
Question 16
In pedogenesis, transformation process includes 1 . Conversion of organic matter into humus 2. Decomposition of primary to secondary minerals 3. Removal of surface material by erosion and leaching 4. Accumulation of materials in a lower horizon      
A
1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B
1 and 2 are correct
C
1, 3 and 4 are correct
D
2, 3 and 4 are correct
Question 17
Match List I and List II and identify the correct answer using codes given
  List I  (Concept) List II (Authors)
 a. Uniformitarianism 1. Peltier
 b. Geomorphic cycle 2. Aggassiz
 c. Ice age 3. Davis
 d. Morphogenetic regions 4. Hutton
  5. Wood
    
  a b c d
 (A) 2 3 4 5
 (B) 4 3 5 1
 (C) 4 3 2 1
 (D) 1 3 2 4
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 18
Patterned ground is associated with the climate       
A
Arid climate
B
Tropical climate
C
Temperate climate
D
Periglacial climate
Question 19
Assertion A : Limestone regions standout as elevated features in arid climates and low lying features in humid climates. Reasoning R : limestone is susceptible to chemical weathering and resistant to physical weathering.        
A
Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation
B
Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and R’ is not the correct explanation
C
‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
D
‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Question 20
Occlusion is a process associated with         
A
Condensation
B
Precipitation
C
Temperate cyclone
D
Cloud formation
Question 21
Clouds which have a streak line form are called       
A
Status
B
Nimbus
C
Cumulus
D
Cirrus
Question 22
Subsidence inversion is produced well above the earth’s surface on account of        
A
Ocean currents
B
Air current
C
Cold current
D
Electric current
Question 23
World Forest Day is observed on         
A
March 21
B
April 22
C
June 5
D
May 22
Question 24
India is divided into______ biogeographic zones and_____biogeographic provinces.        
A
5,10
B
8, 20
C
10, 25
D
15, 35
Question 25
Assertion A : Natural balance of the ecosystem is not only in between production and consumption but also includes energy flow. Reasoning R: Green plants are autrotopic while decomposers are saprotrophs.       
A
Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation
B
Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation
C
‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
D
‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Question 26
Which of the following location is significant for renewable energy generation ?      
A
Sasan
B
Kayathar
C
Kaiga
D
Mundra
Question 27
Identify the correct statement        
A
The headquarters for Botanical Survey of India is located at Dehradun
B
Project Tiger was launched in April 1975
C
Mangroves in India account for about 5% of world’s Mangrove vegetation
D
Bharatpur Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Karnataka
Question 28
Which of the statements is correct?      
A
Son is a major tributary river for Ganges and it joins the northern bank Ganges
B
Rivers Bhagirathi and Alkananda join at Rudraprayag to form Ganges
C
Subansiri is a principal tributary river for Mahanadi
D
Godavari basin is the second largest in India covering nearly 10% of total area of the country
Question 29
Which of the following statements are correct about the impact of Green Revolution on Indian agriculture ? (1) Increases productivity levels of certain crops (2) Increases regional disparities in agricultural development (3) Widened the gap in the productivity levels between the craps (4) Widened the gap in the economic levels between the farming communities     
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3
C
1, 3 and 4
D
1, 2 and 4
Question 30
As per 2011 census, the correct ranking of States in terms of highest sex-ratio       
A
Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, Chattisgarh
B
Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Tamilnadu, Manipur, Chattisgarh
C
Kerala, Tamilnadu, Meghalaya, Chattisgarh, Manipur
D
Kerala, Tamilnadu, Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Manipur
Question 31
No information is lost by regular sampling Provided that the ratio of sampling frequency to highest frequency is         
A
less than 0.5
B
between 0.5 — 1.0
C
between 1.0 - 1.5
D
greater than 2.0
Question 32
If mass is very long in the Y—direction and has a uniform cross-section of arbitrary shape in XZ planes the gravity attraction derives from a       
A
Newtonian potential
B
Geoid potential
C
Logarithmic potential
D
Induction potential
Question 33
Gravity potential satisfies_______ equation in free space.      
A
Laplace’s
B
Poission’s
C
Maxwell’s
D
Linear
Question 34
Simpson’s rule is a numerical method that approximates the value of a definite integral by using        
A
Linear relationship
B
Quadratic polynomial
C
Cubic polynomial
D
Least square approximation
Question 35
Which mineral has highest density?      
A
Wolframite
B
Uraninite
C
Chromite
D
Covdite
Question 36
The degree to which a substance can be magnetised is determined by its        
A
Magnetic susceptibility
B
Magnetic induction
C
Intensity of magnetisation
D
Magnetic permeability
Question 37
Gravimeters used in field measurements have a sensitivity of about      
A
1.0 m gal
B
0.1 m gal
C
0.01 m gal
D
0.001 m gal
Question 38
In gravity prospecting low frequency signal is associated with      
A
Regional effects
B
Residual effects
C
Diurnal variations
D
Drift of gravimeter
Question 39
Very low frequency electromagnetic method is used to explore        
A
Horizontal stratified conducting layers of the earth
B
Vertical or nearly vertical conducting portions of the earth
C
Very deep discontinuities of the earth
D
All the above
Question 40
S.P. log in the water well gives information about 1. porous and permeable formation 2. clear demarcation between permeable and non-permeable formation       
A
Only 1 is correct
B
Only 2 is correct
C
Both 1 and 2 are correct
D
None of the above
Question 41
Radioactive logging techniques are used       
A
Only in cased wells
B
Only in uncased wells
C
Both cased and uncased wells
D
Only in open wells
Question 42
Seismic refraction studies are employed in 1. Oil and natural gas investigations 2. Ground water investigations 3. Archaeological investigations        
A
Only 1 is correct
B
Only 2 is correct
C
Only 3 is correct
D
All the above are correct
Question 43
Subduction zone presents the following type of boundary        
A
Diverging plate boundary
B
Conservative boundary
C
Convergent plate boundary
D
None of the above
Question 44
The earth quake intensity number ‘10’ on Richter scale can be identified by       
A
Buildings tremble, parked vehicles rock and wall clock stops
B
Heavy damage to buildings and collapse of reservoir begin
C
Complete destruction and ground badly twisted
D
Buildings raged to ground and life line destroyed
Question 45
Koyana earth quake is an example of 1. Fault induced seismicity 2. Reservoir induced seismicity 3. Volcanic induced seismicity       
A
Only 1 and 3 are correct
B
Only 2 and 3 are correct
C
Only 3 is correct
D
Only 1 and 2 are correct
Question 46
When the temperature of an air mass increases or decreases without addition or removal of heat, the process is called      
A
Adiabatic process
B
Normal lapse rate
C
Occlusion
D
Thermal inversion
Question 47
The Atlantic Polar Front has its full development during        
A
Spring
B
Summer
C
Winter
D
Autumn
Question 48
The lower limit of the ionosphere     
A
70 —80 km
B
80—120 km
C
120—160 km
D
160—200 km
Question 49
Radio waves can be detected at great distances especially at night. This is clue to the layer        
A
Mesosphere
B
Stratosphere
C
Lithosphere
D
Ionosphere
Question 50
Homogeneous nucleation occurs when the air parcel is         
A
Saturated
B
Super-saturated
C
Unsaturated
D
All of the above
Question 51
In hydrostatic equilibrium the balance will be between        
A
Pressure gradient and gravity
B
Pressure gradient and Coriolis Force
C
Coriolis Force and gravity
D
Coriolis Force and friction
Question 52
The prime mechanism in the formation of hail is        
A
Accretion
B
Coalescence
C
Condensation
D
Dissipation
Question 53
In the absence of external forces when the centrifugal and the Coriolis forces are equal and opposite, then the flow is called       
A
Gradient flow
B
Inertial flow
C
Geostrophic flow
D
Cyclostrophic flow
Question 54
The thermal wind is zero in a _______ atmosphere.         
A
Barotropic
B
Baroclinic
C
Neutral
D
Standard
Question 55
Baroclinic instability arises out of        
A
Horizontal shear
B
Vertical shear
C
Linear shear
D
No shear
Question 56
The ratio of available potential energy to the total potential energy is      
A
1/10
B
1/100
C
1/20
D
1/200
Question 57
In an equivalent barotropic model       
A
The wind is constant with height
B
The wind direction is constant with height
C
Wind is constant with height but the wind direction changes with height
D
Wind direction is constant with height but the wind speed changes with height
Question 58
Wheeler and Hendon gives the magnitude of        
A
Madden Julian oscillations
B
EI Nino southern oscillation
C
Quasi biennial oscillations
D
None of the above
Question 59
In the general circulation ocean models the Western boundary currents are       
A
Ekman boundary layers
B
Munk boundary layers
C
Stommel boundary layers
D
Sverdrup boundary layers
Question 60
In an estuary the salinity of water is reduced due to          
A
Fresh water input
B
Seawater incursion
C
Incursion of tidal currents
D
None of the above
Question 61
In a baroclinic fluid       
A
Density is a function of pressure
B
Density is not a function of pressure
C
Density is a function of depth
D
Density is a function of wave height
Question 62
In oceans one can have        
A
Weather
B
Climate
C
Both weather and climate
D
None of the above
Question 63
Which of the following develop upwelling on a seasonal basis?         
A
Somali current
B
East Arabian current
C
South Jaua current
D
All of the above
Question 64
The Somali current is a        
A
Western boundary current
B
Eastern boundary current
C
Northern boundary current
D
Southern boundary current
Question 65
In sea water the most abundant element present is        
A
Oxygen
B
Hydrogen
C
Chlorine
D
Sodium
Question 66
The PH value of sea water falls in the range of        
A
4-6.5
B
7.5-8.4
C
9-15
D
16-26
Question 67
Large volumes of bottom sediments are transported long distances by       
A
Tidal action
B
Icebergs
C
Storm waves
D
Turbidity currents
Question 68
The continental terrace includes I. Continental shelf II. Continental rise III. Continental slope IV. All of the above       
A
I and II
B
I and III
C
II and III
D
I, II and III
Question 69
Terrigenous sediments of the oceans are deposited by       
A
Rivers
B
Turbidity currents
C
Winds
D
All of the above
Question 70
Based on the depth, the marine environments are classified into      
A
Beaches, littoral environment, neretic environment, abyssal environment
B
Neretic environment, bathyal environment and abyssal environment
C
Littoral environment, bathyal environment and abyssal environment
D
All of the above
Question 71
The ecological parameters of the marine environment include I. Salinity II.Temperature III. Substrate IV. Food       
A
I and II are correct
B
I, II and IV are correct
C
II, III and IV are correct
D
I, III and IV are correct
Question 72
One of the following organisms is not a benthic organism      
A
Ammoniod
B
Asterorotalia
C
Globigerina
D
Elphidium
Question 73
Assertion A: an estuary is a river mouth which is affected by the tides of the sea Reason R : an estuary consists of only freshwater        
A
Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and R is the correct explanation
B
Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but R is not the correct explanation
C
‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
D
‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
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