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SET Law Question Answers

SET Law Question Answers for competitive exams: This mock test having mcq question each also from Paper II, Paper III Syllabus, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this SET Law test question details at the end of the quiz.

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State Level Eligibility Test is also know as SET  (State Eligibility TestLaw questions answers are applicable for any kind of Higher Law especially for Lecturer and PHD examination like UGC NET And CSIR NET. . You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers SET Law critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking LS/PHD level exam.

SET/SLET Law Paper II - Online Mock Test

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Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The three new concepts ‘secularism, socialism and integrity’ have been inserted in the preamble through                     
A
38th Amendment
B
40th Amendment
C
42nd Amendment
D
44th Amendment
Question 2
The following fundamental rights are not available to aliens                
A
Art. 14, 15, 19
B
Art. 15, 16, 19
C
Art. 16, 19, 21
D
Art. 14, 19, 21
Question 3
The Parliament shall consist of                 
A
President, Council of States and House of the People
B
President, Council of States and Prime Minister
C
President, Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
D
Prime Minister, Council of States and House of the People
Question 4
The right to freedom of religion guaranteed in Article 25 of the Constitution of India is subject to which of the following?                    
A
Public order, morality and to the other provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India
B
Public order, morality and health
C
Reasonableness restrictions in the interests of the security of the State
D
Public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India
Question 5
Which one of the following statements is correct? Emergency shall:                  
A
be proclaimed by the President on his satisfaction
B
be proclaimed by the President on the basis of the recommendation of the Union Cabinet
C
be declared under Article 353
D
continue for a maximum period of three years
Question 6
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists:
 List I List II
 A. Basic structure of the Constitution cannot be amended 1. In reference to Special Court Bill 1978
 B. A law made by legislature to deprive a person of his personal liberty must be just, fair and reasonable 2. Kesavanand Bharathi v State of Kerala
 C. Advisory opinion of Supreme court is also binding on all courts 3. SR Bommai v. Union  of India
 D. President satisfaction under Art. 356 judicially reviewable to a limited extent 4. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Codes:
  A B C D
 (A) 2 4 1 3
 (B) 2 4 3 1
 (C) 1 2 3 4
 (D) 1 2 4 3
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 7
At the time of formation of Israel, there was a dispute between Israel and Palestine and other Arab countries. United Nations Organisation acted as a mediator in the dispute between Israel and Palestine. It sent a team to pacify the enemeties between them. Count Folke Bernadotte- a Swedish national was the head of the UN Truce Negotiation team. On 17-9-1948, he was murdered by terrorists. The ICJ ordered Israel to pay compensation to UN for the death of Bernadotte. Refer case- law                  
A
Reparation for injuries suffered in the services of the United Nations case
B
Attorney General of the Government of Israel v. Eichmann
C
The Nuremberg trial
D
Advisory opinion of the ICJ on Reservation of the Genocide convention
Question 8
The given item consists of two statements one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Assertion (A) : The International Court of Justice is the principal organ of the UN Reason (R) : The International Court of Justice has compulsory jurisdiction over all the members of UN Codes:                      
A
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
A is true, but R is false
D
A is false, but R is true
Question 9
‘Jus cogens’ means                    
A
peremptory norms of general international law from which no derogation is permissible
B
rules of ancient customary international law which are rendered redundant in modern times
C
abrogation of a rule in a treaty by a subsequent treaty
D
rule developed from a bilateral treaty which has found universal
Question 10
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists:
  List I      List II
 A. The conception of one world 1. Jeremy Bentham
 B. The term ‘international Law’ was coined by 2. Wendell Wilkie
 C. The Franconia 3. Anzilotti
 D. Pacta Sunt Servanda 4. Lord Coleridge
Codes:
  A B C D
 (A) 1 3 2 4
 (B) 3 2 4 1
 (C) 2 1 4 3
 (D) 4 1 2 3
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 11
The U.N.O. has been prohibited from intervening in matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any State. Yet the                
A
Security Council can intervene when it decides on enforcement action
B
Security Council can intervene to stop religious strife in a country
C
General Assembly can intervene under the ‘uniting for peace’ Resolution
D
Security Council can intervene for the release of hostage taken by a State
Question 12
Which of the following is among the purpose of the UN as laid down in Article 1 of the U.N. charter? I. To maintain international peace and security II. To develop friendly relation among nations III. To ensure that non-members of the United Nations Act in accordance with the U.N. charter IV. To achieve international co-operation in solving international problems of an economic social cultural or humanitarian character                
A
I, II, III are correct
B
I, III, IV are correct
C
I, II, IV are correct
D
II, III, IV are correct
Question 13
That a legal system arises from the combination of primary and secondary rules was enunciated by                 
A
Austin
B
Hart
C
Bentham
D
Kelsen
Question 14
Which one of the schools of jurisprudence considers that ‘a reasoned scale of values can be discovered as a basis for legal development’?                   
A
Analytical
B
Philosophical
C
Historical
D
Sociological
Question 15
Consider the following statements with regard to natural law 1 . The central notion of natural law is the existence of objective moral principles 2. These principles are discovered by reference to legal sources as the constitution, codes and so on 3. These principles depend on the essential nature of man                  
A
1, 2, 3 are correct
B
1, 2 are correct
C
2, 3 are correct
D
1, 3 are correct
Question 16
Which of the following statements are correct? I. Ownership can be legal and vested ownership II. Ownership can be legal and equitable ownership III. Ownership can be trust and beneficial ownership Select the correct answer                   
A
I and II
B
I and III
C
I, II and III
D
II and III
Question 17
Kelsen’s theory of law is called pure theory because Kelsen                 
A
Purely discussed jurisprudence only
B
Defined law in accordance with morality and purity
C
Separated law from religion, ethics, sociology and history
D
Discussed law purely in terms of justice
Question 18
“Law as such is found and not made. It is to be found in popular faith, common convictions, customs, traits, habits, traditions which in course of time grow into legal rules”. This concept was propounded by                  
A
Thibaut
B
Henry Maine
C
Savingny
D
Salmond
Question 19
Which among the following is recently declared as a ground for divorce for Hindu’s by the Supreme Court of India                     
A
Cruelty
B
Conversion
C
Irretrievable break down of marriage
D
Mutual consent
Question 20
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists:
 List I List II
 I. Gita Hariharan v Reserve Bank of India  1. Marriage
 II. Bai Tahira V. All Hussain 2. Divorce
 III. Md. Amin v. Vakil Ahmed 3. Maintenance
 IV. Dastane v. Dastane 4. Guardianship
Codes:
  I II III IV
 (A) 1 4 3 2
 (B) 2 3 4 1
 (C) 3 4 2 1
 (D) 4 3 1 2
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 21
Arrange the following sources of Hindu Law sequentially in the chronological order I. Dharma Sutra II. Custom III. Veda IV. Dharma Shastra                         
A
III, II, IV, I
B
IV, III, II, I
C
III, I, IV, II
D
II, III, IV, I
Question 22
Select the correct statements from the following I. Hindu marriage requires compulsory registration II. Mohammedans marriage requires compulsory registration III. Special Marriage Act mandates compulsory registration IV. All the above are correct                
A
IV
B
II and III
C
I and II
D
I and III
Question 23
Which among the following provides for penal consequences if marriage is solemnised between a female aged below 18 years and a male aged below 21 years?                  
A
Special Marriage Act 1954
B
Hindu Marriage Act 1955
C
Child Marriage Restraint Act 1929
D
Christian Marriage Act 1872
Question 24
Which among the following is not a source of Mohammedan Law?                 
A
Koran
B
Hadith
C
Qiyas
D
Shariat
Question 25
Which among the following is the source of Mohammedan Law derived from the Islamic jurists analogical deductions?                  
A
Koran
B
Hadith
C
Qiyas
D
Shariat
Question 26
The given item consists of two statements one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Assertion (A) : Mensrea is scribed in Indian Penal Code by use of the following terms, to describe the essentials of offences, such as voluntarily, knowingly, with the intention. Reason (R) Mensrea is an essential element of a crime however Indian Law does not mandate it generally but mandates it by implication                    
A
Both A and R are true
B
Both A and R are false
C
A is true but R is false
D
R is true but A is false
Question 27
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists:
 List I   List II
 I. Conspiracy 1. Section 21 of IPC
 II. Private Defence 2. Section 120 of IPC
 III. Common Intention 3. Section 96 of IPC
 IV. Public Servant 4. Section 34 of IPC
Codes:
  I II III IV
 (A) 1 4 2 3
 (B) 2 3 4 1
 (C) 4 2 3 1
 (D) 3 1 4 2
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 28
Which among the following fall under General Exceptions as per the Indian Penal Code? I. Mistake II. Private Defence III. Insanity IV. Consent Select the correct answer                
A
I, II and III
B
II, III and IV
C
I, III and IV
D
II, III and I
Question 29
Which is not defined in Indian Penal Code?                    
A
Public Servant
B
Suicide
C
Mischief
D
Theft
Question 30
Mr. A, a doctor informs his patient that it may be difficult for him to survive. The patient died as a consequence of shock. Mr. A is                  
A
liable as he has not taken reasonable care
B
liable as he knows the consequences of his communication
C
not liable as it amounts to professional hazard
D
not liable if he does it in good faith
Question 31
Mr. A instigates a child to mix poison in Z’s food. The child by mistake mixes the poison in Y’s food who was sitting adjacent to Z. Which among the following is correct?                    
A
Mr. A is liable
B
Mr. A is not liable
C
Child is liable
D
Neither Mr. A nor the child is liable
Question 32
Hadley v Bxendale deals with                     
A
Consideration
B
Fraud
C
Frustration
D
Rules as to damages
Question 33
The effect of frustration of a contract is to operate as                     
A
Mode of discharge
B
Mode of performance
C
Breach of contract
D
Mistake of contract
Question 34
A minor’s contract is void as decided in                      
A
Balfour v Balfour
B
Mohiribibi v Dharma Das Ghose
C
Chinnaih v Ramaiah
D
Phillips v Brooks Ltd.
Question 35
Substitution of new contract in the place of old one is called                     
A
Rescission
B
Alteration
C
Cancellation
D
Novation
Question 36
Every registered trade union shall submit annual returns including the income and expenditure to the concerned registrar                      
A
This rule is mandatory
B
This rule is only directive
C
It is not strictly implemented, as the majority of the registered trade unions do not follow it
D
Statements (B) and (C) are correct
Question 37
Police have no right to form a trade union. It was decided in                  
A
Kulkarni v. State of Bombay
B
Delhi Police Sangh v. State of Punjab
C
Sitharamachary v. Senior Deputy Inspector
D
Madhu Limaye v. S.D.M
Question 38
What is the limitation period for a conciliation officer to submit a report on the conciliation proceedings from the date of starting such proceedings?                   
A
14 days
B
30 days
C
40 days
D
60 days
Question 39
A management of an industry can dismiss or discharge a protected workman only after obtaining permission from                       
A
Industrial Tribunal
B
Labour Court
C
Appropriate Government
D
No permission is required for valid reason of dismissal or discharge
Question 40
A building was erected by the defendant which caused diminution of light to two ground floor windows of the Plaintiff’s house. Subsequently electric lights were always needed in the place. An action for damages can be brought on the ground                        
A
Public nuisance
B
Private nuisance
C
Negligence
D
Strict liability
Question 41
Which of the following is not a valid defence in tort?                        
A
Volenti non fit injuria
B
Vis major
C
Scienti non fit injuria
D
Consent
Question 42
A master is liable for the wrongs of his servant if the servant                   
A
Has acted outside the scope of this duty in violation of express orders
B
Is temporarily lent to another
C
Is drunk while on duty
D
Has acted in self-defence against the criminal conductor of the person who sues the master
Question 43
Consider the following set of legal propositions 1. A person can claim damages for all wrongs he has suffered 2. A person can claim damages for wrongs only if they are caused intentionally 3. A person can claim damages for a wrong if it is caused by infringement of this legal right 4. A person can claim damage even if he has suffered no loss Of  the above propositions which are correct?                      
A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
1 and 3
D
2 and 4
Question 44
Which one of the following statement is correct?                      
A
Inevitable accident is not a defence at all but only a denial of liability
B
Inevitable accident is not a denial of liability but only a defence
C
Inevitable accident is both defence and denial of liability
D
Inevitable accident is a chance event and can neither be a defence nor a denial of liability
Question 45
Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution by                        
A
The Constitution (Forty second Amendment) Act, 1 976
B
The Constitution (Forty fourth Amendment) Act, 1 978
C
The Constitution (Fifty second Amendment) Act, 1985
D
None of the above
Question 46
The Commission appointed in relation to Centre-State Relations is                         
A
Sarkaria Commission
B
Wadhwa Commission
C
Varma Commission
D
Sri Krishna Commission
Question 47
Read the following passage and answer questions 47-50 Now since law and morals are primarily concerned with human interest, every wrong involves smoke interest attacked by it, and every duty involves some interest tow which it relates, and for whose protection it exists. The converse, however, is not true. Every attack upon an interest is not a wrong either in fact or in law, nor is respect for every interest a duty, either legal or natural. Many interests exist de facto and not also de jure; they receive no recognition or protection from any rule of right. The violation of them is no wrong, and respect for them; is no duty. For the interests of men conflict with each other, and it is impossible for all to revive rightful recognition. The rule of justice selects some for protection and the others are rejected. Whether his interest amounts to a right depends on whether there exists with respect to it a duty imposed upon any other person.Rights, like wrongs and duties, are either moral or legal. A moral or natural right is an interest recognized and protected by a rule of morality — an interest the violation of which would be a moral wrong, and respect for which is amoral duty. A legal right, on the other hand, is an interest recognised and protected by a rule of law- an interest the violation of which would be a legal wrong done to him whose interest it is, and respect for which is a legal duty.An interest recognized and protected by a rule of law         
A
a legal right
B
legal order
C
legal obligations
D
a legal duty
Question 48
What is the primary concern of law and morals?                         
A
Human behaviour
B
Human interest
C
Human security
D
Human development
Question 49
Rights and duties are                   
A
Legal only
B
Moral only
C
Moral or legal
D
Moral and legal
Question 50
Which of the following statement is correct?                    
A
All interests are protected by law
B
Some interests are protected by law
C
No interest is protected by law
D
None of the above statements is correct
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SET/SLET Law Paper III - Online Mock Test

Congratulations - you have completed SET/SLET Law Paper III - Online Mock Test.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction regarding a dispute between                      
A
The Government of India and a State or States
B
The Government of India and one State on one side and one or more States on the other side
C
Two States
D
A citizen and a State
Question 2
Which one of the following is not an automatic consequence of the proclamation of emergency?                         
A
Suspension of the enforcement of fundamental rights except those conferred by article 20 and 21
B
Extension of the union’s executive power to the issue of directions to any State as to the manner in which its executive power has to be exercised
C
Extension of the power of Parliament to the making of legislation in regard to items of the State list
D
Suspension of Article 19
Question 3
The statutes ‘The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act 1989’ and ‘Protection of Civil Rights Act 1956’ are based on                      
A
Article 14
B
Article 15
C
Article 16
D
Article 17
Question 4
Under the Indian Constitution which one of the following is not a specific ground on which the State can place restrictions on freedom of religion?                      
A
public order
B
morality
C
social justice
D
health
Question 5
Arrange the following decisions of the Supreme Court on Fundamental Rights relating to personal liberty in the correct chronological sequence. (1) Maneka Gandhi V. Union of India (2) A.D.M. Jabalpur V. Shivakanth Shukla (3) A.K. Gopalan V. State of Madras Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:                              
A
3, 2, 1
B
2, 1, 3
C
2, 3, 1
D
1, 2, 3
Question 6
In the event of occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and the Vice President of India, who among the following shall discharge functions of the President till a new President is elected?                               
A
Speaker of Lok Sabha
B
Leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha
C
Chief Justice of India
D
Senior most Governor
Question 7
Which of the following Amendments inserted the words “Nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendments made under this Article” in Article 368?                          
A
Forty-Second Amendment Act
B
Forty-Fourth Amendment Act
C
Twenty-Fourth Amendment Act
D
Twenty-Second Amendment Act
Question 8
Which of the following is correctly matched?                         
A
Republic: head of the State is hereditary monarch
B
Sovereign: Constitution rests on the people’s will
C
Democratic: Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another country
D
Secular: State is without any religion of its own
Question 9
Which one of the following is not part of the principle of proportionality?                               
A
The court considers what is necessary to achieve the legitimate aims of a particular policy or legislation
B
Proportionality often involves striking a balance between the benefits to be achieved by doing something and the harm that may be done by interfering with a person’s convention rights in the process
C
The court looks at (1) the comparative importance of the actual rights being claimed in the individual case; (2) the justifications for interfering with or restricting each of those rights ; and (3) apply the proportionality test to each
D
Proportionality has now replaced unreasonableness as a ground for judicial review
Question 10
Which one of the following is not a key feature of the separation of powers?                          
A
The same persons should not form part of more than one of the three organs of government
B
One organ of government should not control or interfere with the work of another
C
Everyone is equally subject to the law
D
One organ of government should not exercise the functions of another
Question 11
Which one of the following statements is false in respect of subjective discretionary powers?                         
A
In carrying out its functions, the Judiciary gives Parliament and the executive no latitude whatsoever where national security is concerned
B
Indefinite imprisonment without charge is contrary to the rule of law because it deprives the detained person of the protection given to them by the process of criminal trial
C
The primary burden of protecting national security rests with the executive
D
The role of the judiciary, in a legal system based on the rule of law, is to make sure that legislation and ministerial decisions do not overlook the human rights of those adversely affected and that both Parliament and the executive give due weight to fundamental rights and freedoms
Question 12
Which one of the following statements is true ?                               
A
The decision in Anisminic Ltd. V Foreign Compensation Commission (1969) rendered obsolete the distinction between errors of law on the face of the record and other errors of law by extending the doctrine of ultra vires
B
Anisminic gives the High Court jurisdiction to review a tribunal’s decision on its merits
C
After Anisminic a non jurisdictional error cannot be challenged on appeal
D
After Anisminic jurisdictional errors can be challenged in the country Court
Question 13
Which one of following statements is false?                             
A
A Quashing order, Mandatory order, or Prohibiting order must be claimed by judicial review
B
An injunction or declaration may be claimed by judicial review
C
All judicial review remedies are mandatory
D
A claim for judicial review may include a claim for damages, restitution or the recovery of a sum due but a claimant may not seek such a remedy alone
Question 14
Which one of the following statements is true?                              
A
Judicial review focuses on the way public bodies make their decisions. The basis of a judicial review claim is not that a decision is wrong, unless the decision is so wrong that no reasonable public body could have reached it
B
In judicial review the court reverses the decision of the defendant public body
C
The grounds for judicial review are always contained in the statute conferring powers on public bodies
D
In judicial review the court replaces the decision of the defendant public body with its own decision on the merits of the claim
Question 15
John Austin authored                             
A
The Province of Jurisprudence determined
B
The Limits of Jurisprudence defined
C
The Province of Law determined
D
The Limits of Law defined
Question 16
Volkgeist means                       
A
Custom of the people
B
Law of the land
C
Spirit of the people
D
Strength of the people
Question 17
Obiter dictum is                                 
A
Something said by a judge
B
Something said by a saint
C
Something said by a sovereign
D
Something said by a society
Question 18
According to classical theory, ‘Possession is made up’ I. Animus II. Mensrea III. Corpus IV. Intangible Select the correct answer                              
A
I and II correct
B
II and III correct
C
I and III correct
D
I and IV correct
Question 19
The given item consists of two statements one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Assertion (A) : X has a right Reasoning (R) : There is in existence of a legal system                           
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
A is true but (R) is false
D
A is false but (R) is true
Question 20
Match List I with II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
  List I   List II
 A. Imperfect right 1. encumbrance
 B. Right in personam 2. claims barred by lapse of time
 C. Right in realiena 3. right to possession
 D. Right in rem 4. right to recover debt
Codes:
  A B C D
 (A) 1 2 4 3
 (B) 2 3 4 1
 (C) 2 4 1 3
 (D) 1 2 3 4
   
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 21
Possession, in fact, is a relationship between                                
A
a person and a law
B
a property and a right
C
a person and a thing
D
a property and a thing
Question 22
Positivism regards law as                     
A
the expression of the will of the state through the medium of the legislature
B
the expression of the will of the state through the medium of nature
C
the expression of the will of the public through the medium of sovereign
D
the expression of the will of the people through the medium of status
Question 23
B hires a hammer and chisel from A. Thereafter with these instruments he breaks into the house of C and commits theft there. A is charged with the offence of abetment. In the case                            
A
A supplied the instruments for commission of the crime and hence is liable
B
A received money for supplying the instruments of the crime (motive) and hence is liable
C
A did not know that the hammer and chisel were being hired to commit a crime and hence is not liable
D
A has joint liability
Question 24
X with a view to murdering Y enters Y’s bedroom at night when Y is out of station. X is guilty of                          
A
Murder
B
House trespass
C
Attempt to murder
D
No effect
Question 25
X on receiving grave and sudden provocation from Z intentionally causes the death of Y who is Z’s brother. X has committed the offence of                          
A
Murder
B
Grievous hurt
C
Culpable homicide
D
Attempt to murder
Question 26
Which one of the following is sufficient to prove the offence of sedition?                             
A
Comments expressing disapproval of the policies of the government with a view to obtain a change in policies by lawful means
B
Proof of disloyalty or ill feelings
C
Comments expressing disapproval of the administrative action even though do not excite hatred or disloyalty
D
Exciting disaffection towards the government
Question 27
A bullock-cart carrying a box of treasure is intercepted by A. The offence of theft is committed by A if and as soon as                               
A
He seizes the bullock
B
The bullock is made to move by him in his direction
C
He takes the box of treasure
D
He takes the valuable contents of the treasure
Question 28
A obtained a sum of Rs. 10,000 from B by putting B in fear of death. Which one of the following offences was committed by A?                               
A
Cheating
B
Robbery
C
Mischief
D
Extortion
Question 29
A is found guilty of attempt to murder in furtherance of common intention. Under which one of the following situations can his offence be proved?                            
A
A procured the weapon of offence voluntarily
B
The weapon of offence was taken away from A’s house without his knowledge
C
A was made to purchase the weapon of offence under the threat to his own life
D
When the weapon was snatched away from A he did not report the same to police
Question 30
Environment Impact Assessment Notification 2006 has replaced the public hearing with which of the following?                                 
A
Public consultation
B
Screening
C
Appraisal
D
Public opinion
Question 31
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers Recognition of Rights Act, 2006 provides rights for the first time to the forest dwellers on the basis of                              
A
Ownership
B
Usage
C
Assignment
D
Record of rights
Question 32
The given item consists of two statements one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Assertion (A) : Water pollution is a form of nuisance and the Executive Magistrate is empowered to order a person to restrain from polluting a water body under Section 133 of Criminal Procedure Code. Reason (R) : Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 is a special legislation dealing with water pollution hence general law provisions pertaining to water pollution are not applicable for regulating water pollution.                                
A
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
A is true, but R is false
D
A is false, but R is true
Question 33
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists:
 List I   List II
 I. Suspended particulate matter 1. Municipal solid waste
 II. Industrial Emissions 2. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
 III. Sewage effluent 3. Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986
 IV. Demolition Debris 4. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
Codes:
  I II III IV
 (A) 4 3 2 1
 (B) 1 2 3 4
 (C) 3 2 1 4
 (D) 4 1 2 3
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 34
Polluter Pays Principle is declared as law of the land in India in which of the following decisions of Supreme Court of India?                                     
A
Indian Council for Enviro Legal Action V Union of India (AIR 1996 SC 1446)
B
Subash Kumar V State of Bihar (AIR 1991 SC 420)
C
MC Mehta V Union of India (1997(II) SCC 312)
D
Narmada Bachao Andolan V Union of India (AIR 1999 SC 3345)
Question 35
Arrange the following in the order in which Supreme Court of India declared them as law of the land I. Public Trust Doctrine II. Precautionary Principle III. Right to Environment as part of Right to Life IV. Polluter pays Principle                                  
A
I IV III II
B
II III IV I
C
IV III II I
D
III IV II I
Question 36
Which among the following powers are available to Pollution Control Board as per The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.I. Sample collection and sending them for laboratory verification II. Close the erring industries III. Initiate action against erring industries IV. All the above Select the correct answer                                  
A
I and II
B
IV
C
I II and III
D
I and III
Question 37
“International law is not true law, it is only positive international morality” - who defined it?                                    
A
John Austin
B
Hall
C
Starke
D
Gray
Question 38
“International law or the law of nations is the name for a body of rules which according to the usual definition regulate the conduct of the States in their intercourse with one another”- who defined it ?                                  
A
John Austin
B
Torsten Gihl
C
Kelsen
D
World Court
Question 39
The father of modern law of nations is                               
A
Starke
B
John Austin
C
Jeremy Bentham
D
Hugo Grotius
Question 40
Article 38 (1) (c) of the statute of ICJ provides about “the general principles of law recognised by civilised nations”. What does it mean?                                                    
A
Principles of natural justice are general principles recognised by civilised States
B
Res judicata, estoppels, res subjudice, etc are the general principles of law recognized by civilised States
C
General principles of law recognised by civilised States include both procedural and substantive laws
D
All the above
Question 41
‘Specific Adoption Theory’ means                                
A
International law can be applied in sovereign states directly without the adoption of that sovereign State, but by the direction and adoption of the UNO
B
International law cannot be applied in sovereign States directly; unless and until that sovereign state specifically adopts that law by way of enactments
C
As soon as the general assembly passes a rule, the sovereign state should specifically adopt that rule in its municipal laws
D
None of the above
Question 42
‘Transformation Theory’ means                                                 
A
International law spreads universally, but this law has to undergo transformation, if it is applied to municipal law
B
The international law cannot be applied to municipal law
C
Municipal law gradually transforms to international law
D
None of the above
Question 43
‘Delegation Theory’ means                                                                 
A
The municipal laws delegate the rule making power to international law
B
The international law delegates the rule making power to each State in accordance with the procedure and system prevailing in each State in accordance with the Constitution and rules of the treaty or any other convention at international level
C
Municipal law gradually transfers and delegates into international law
D
None of the above
Question 44
A child of void marriage is                                                     
A
entitled to an interest in which his father is a coparcener
B
not entitled to an interest in which his father is a coparcener
C
may or may not be entitled to an interest in which his father is a coparcener
D
entitled of interest is discretionary to the court
Question 45
Proceedings for restitution of conjugal rights enables the aggrieved spouse for                                          
A
maintenance under Section 25 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B
maintenance pendente lite under Section 24 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
C
both (A) and (B)
D
either (A) or (B)
Question 46
During judicial separation                                        
A
parties continue to be husband and wife but marital rights and obligations are suspended
B
parties continue to be husband and wife and marital rights and obligations remain intact
C
parties continue to be husband and wife and may suspend or may not suspend the marital rights and obligations
D
parties cease to be husband and wife
Question 47
Doctrine of recrimination provides that                                           
A
if both parties, independent of each other, have committed matrimonial offences, the marriage should be dissolved
B
if both parties, independent of each other, have committed matrimonial offences, the marriage should not be dissolved
C
if both parties, independent of each other, have committed matrimonial offences
D
either (A) or (C)
Question 48
Conversion from Hindu to another religion is a ground for divorce                    
A
under Section 13 (1) (ii) of the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955
B
under Section 13 (1) (iii) of the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955
C
under Section 13 (1) (iv) of the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955
D
under Section 13 (1) (v) of the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955
Question 49
Father-in-law’s obligation to maintain the daughter-in-law is                                     
A
a personal obligation
B
co-extensive with ancestral property in the hands of father-in-law
C
co-extensive with the personal property of the father-in-law
D
both (B) and (C)
Question 50
The ‘Absolute Theory’ as the basis for liability in tort for industrial injuries was propounded by                                        
A
Black Burn J.
B
V.R. Krishna lyer J
C
RN. Bhagwati
D
Lord Atkin
Question 51
Which of the following is an essential ingredient to constitute tort ?                                          
A
violation of legal right
B
wrongful act must result in legal damages
C
wrongful act must give rise to a legal remedy
D
actual damages must have accrued to the party
Question 52
Which among the following Constitute Civil and Political rights as per Universal Declaration of Human Rights? I. Freedom of Opinion and Expression II. Right to nationality III. Right to Education IV. Equal Access to Public Service                            
A
I III and IV
B
II III and IV
C
I II and III
D
I II and IV
Question 53
Which among the following Conventions are influenced and inspired by the Universal Declaration on Human Rights? I. Convention on prevention and punishment of the genocide II. Convention on forced labour III. Convention concerning discrimination in respect of employment and occupation IV. Convention concerning climate change Select the correct answer                        
A
II III and IV
B
I II and III
C
I III and IV
D
IV III and I
Question 54
Which part of Indian Constitution embodies Human Rights?                                     
A
Part III
B
Part VI
C
Part IV
D
Part V
Question 55
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists:
 List I   List II
 I. Freedom of equality and dignity 1. Economic social and cultural rights
 II. Prevention of slavery and slavery trade 2. Fundamental rights
 III. Equal pay for equal work 3. Civil and political rights
 IV. Right to equality  4. Human rights
Codes:
  I II III IV
 (A) 1 3 2 4
 (B) 4 3 1 2
 (C) 3 4 1 2
 (D) 2 4 3 1
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 56
The given item consists of two statements one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Assertion (A) : Human rights proclaim inherent freedom and equality in dignity and rights of all human beings Reason (R) : Right to equality is interpreted to mean equality among equals but not absolute equality                            
A
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are individually true. but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
A is true, but R is false
D
A is false, but R is true
Question 57
Respondent superior means                        
A
Let the principal be liable
B
Let the respondent be liable
C
Let the subordinate be liable
D
Let the sovereign be liable
Question 58
What type of damages can be granted in case of invasion of a right of easement?                                   
A
Exemplary damages
B
Substantial damages
C
Nominal damages
D
Contemptuous damages
Question 59
Unliquidated damages means                            
A
Unascertained sum of money
B
Ascertained sum of money
C
Damages arising of res-ipsa-loquitur
D
(A) and (C)
Question 60
The rule in Donoghue Vs. Stevension is                            
A
wholesale dealer is liable to the ultimate consumer
B
retailer is liable to the ultimate consumer
C
manufacturer is liable to the ultimate consumer
D
distributor is liable to the ultimate consumer
Question 61
In Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti, the Supreme Court applied which one of the following principles?                              
A
Last opportunity rule
B
Contributory negligence
C
Basic negligence
D
Res ipsa loquitur
Question 62
A employs B, a surgeon, to attend his infant son C. By reason of B’s negligence C is injured. Which one of the following is correct?                              
A
A can sue B for tort only
B
Both A and C can sue B for tort only
C
A can sue B for tort or for breach of contract
D
A can sue B neither for tort nor breach of contract
Question 63
Read the following passage and answer questions 63 to 66 Human Rights refer to the basic rights and freedoms to which all humans are entitled. Socio-Economic rights are usually treated as positive rights and as identifying programmatic goals for the Government. One of the necessary factors in the development of a healthy society is a proper socio-economic theory. In any age people have to come to grips with the question as to how the resources of the world are to be utilized and allocated. In addition, society needs to arrange a system of government which can meet the needs of all its members. The answers which the society gives to these concerns reflect the socio economic values which that society follows. Some societies are unwilling to enshrine purported economic, social and cultural rights as legal rights, seeing them only as needs that society or government might provide if resources are available, but which are not justifiable unless they are established by some contract.  What is the meaning of human rights? 
A
basic rights and freedoms of human beings
B
basic rights and freedoms of citizen
C
basic rights and freedoms of all living beings
D
basic rights and freedoms guaranteed by United Nations
Question 64
Socio economic rights are                   
A
positive rights
B
negative rights
C
property rights
D
group rights
Question 65
Which of the following is a factor in the development of a healthy society?                     
A
proper social theory
B
proper socio-economic theory
C
proper government
D
proper legal system
Question 66
Suitable title for the passage is                           
A
Human Rights
B
Socio-Economic Rights
C
Socio Economic Theory
D
Human Rights and Society
Question 67
A legal act of a company which is beyond its objects clauses is I. ultravires II. void III. ultravires and illegal IV. ultravires and voidable Select the correct answer                               
A
I and II
B
I and III
C
I, II and III
D
II and III
Question 68
Usually, the first directors are named in company’s                              
A
Memorandum of Association
B
Articles of Association
C
Company’s resolution
D
Statutory meeting
Question 69
Which one of the following statement is a correct statement?                                 
A
The entity of partnership arises from contract and not from status
B
The relation of partnership arises from status and not from contract
C
The relation of partnership arises from contract and not from status
D
The system of partnership arises from contract and not from status
Question 70
The customer of an unregistered firm defamed the partner of that firm. The partner prefers to file a case. The partner has                            
A
no right to sue as it amounts to illegal
B
has no right to sue as he is a partner in an unregistered firm
C
a right to sue
D
no right as it is against public policy
Question 71
Caveat emptor means                            
A
Let the government beware
B
Let the seller beware
C
Let the buyer beware
D
Let the sovereign beware
Question 72
Mr. A issued a cheque to Mr. B for Rs. 15,000/-. The cheque is dishonoured by the bank due to insufficiency of funds in Mr. A’s account. Mr. B intends to file a criminal complaint against Mr. A after giving him the requisite notice. When should Mr. B give notice?                              
A
After his account is not credited by the banker
B
After the banker informed him about the dishonour
C
Six months after the payment date mentioned on the cheque
D
When Mr. A refuses to make payment
Question 73
Which among the following is an essential characteristic of a bill of exchange?                               
A
Unconditional order to pay
B
Discounting a bill of exchange
C
Bill market scheme
D
Noting
Question 74
Which among the following is NOT a correct statement?                         
A
Negotiable instruments are easily transferable
B
Dishonour of a negotiable instrument invites legal action
C
Negotiable instruments are transferred by endorsement or delivery
D
Negotiable instruments require attesting witness
Question 75
Which among the following is not a Negotiable Instrument?                               
A
Promissory note
B
Bill of exchange
C
Bond
D
Cheque
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