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SET Life Science Question Answers

SET Life Science Question Answers for competitive exams: This mock test having mcq question each also from Paper II, Paper III Syllabus, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this SET Life Science test question details at the end of the quiz.

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SET Life Science Question Answers

State Level Eligibility Test is also know as SET  (State Eligibility TestLife Science questions answers are applicable for any kind of Higher Life Science especially for Lecturer and PHD examination like UGC NET And CSIR NET. . You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers SET Life Science critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking LS/PHD level exam.



SET/SLET Life Science Paper II - Online Mock Test

Congratulations - you have completed SET/SLET Life Science Paper II - Online Mock Test.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Eukaryotic mRNA can be separated from the total RNA by                          
A
Size Exclusion chromatography
B
Ion-Exchange chromatography
C
Affinity chromatography
D
Partition chromatography
Question 2
Which of the following involves the combining of two cells without cell walls from different plants?                    
A
Clonal propagation
B
Hybridization
C
Protoplast fusion
D
Mutant selection
Question 3
Non-polar amino acid residues are found mostly             
A
In the core of proteins
B
On the surface of proteins
C
On alpha helix
D
In no specific region
Question 4
Which of the following organellae does not carry out transcription ?                   
A
Nucleus
B
Peroxisome
C
Chloroplast
D
Mitochondrian
Question 5
Given below are two statements Assertion (A): Hexokinase and Glucokinase have low and high km towards glucose respectively. Reason (R): Glucokinase operates under high glucose concentratian only. Which of these statements are correct?                  
A
A is correct but R is wrong
B
R is correct but A is wrong
C
Both A and R are correct
D
Both A and R are wrong
Question 6
Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) Assertion (A): Protooncogenes are found in most of the animal cells. Reason (R): They are related to viral oncogenes. In the context of these statements which one of the following is correct?                       
A
A is correct but R is wrong
B
Both A and R are correct
C
A is wrong but R is correct
D
Both A and R are wrong
Question 7
Given below are two statements Assertion (A): All eukaryotic mRNAs are capped at 5’end Reason (R) : 5’ cap is not essential for efficient mRNA translation Which of these statements are correct?                          
A
A is correct, R is wrong
B
Both A and R are correct
C
A is wrong R is correct
D
Both A and R are wrong
Question 8
Match the following
 I. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance 1 Microwaves
 II. Electron Spin Resonance 2. Radiowaves
 III. Raman spectroscopy 3. UV/Visible light
 IV. Spectrophotometry 4 Infrared waves
 
  I II III IV
 (A) 4 3 2 1
 (B) 1 2 4 3
 (C) 2 1 4 3
 (D) 2 3 4 1
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 9
Match the following
 I. Bt cotton 1. Improved shelf life
 II. Flavr Savr Tomato 2. Improved nutritional quality
 III. Roundup Ready Sorghum 3. Pest resistance
 IV. Golden Yellow Rice 4 Herbicide tolerance
   
  I II III IV
 (A) 4 2 1 3
 (B) 3 1 4 2
 (C) 4 2 3 1
 (D) 3 2 1 4
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 10
Viruses that persist in the cell and cause recurrent disease are called                          
A
Oncogenic viruses
B
Latent viruses
C
Cytopathic viruses
D
Resistant viruses
Question 11
Assertion (A) : Indirect somatic embryogenesis, embryos are developed without going through callus formation. Reason (R) : This is possible due to the presence of pre-embryonically determined cells.                         
A
Both A and R are true but R is not correct reason for A
B
A is false but R is true
C
A is true but R is false
D
Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason for A
Question 12
In complement cascade the complement 1 activate as follows I. C1q II. C1r III. C1s IV. C1d                       
A
I, II, III, IV
B
II, III, IV, I
C
III, IV, II, I
D
IV, III, II, I
Question 13
Match the following
 I.   Pyridoxal phosphate 1. Vitamin B1
 II.  Niacin 2. Vitamin B6
 III. Thiamin pyrophosphate 3. Vitamin B2
 IV. Flavin nucleotides 4. Vitamin B3
    
  I II III IV
 (A) 1 2 3 4
 (B) 2 4 1 3
 (C) 4 3 2 1
 (D) 3 4 1 2
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 14
The protein structure is stabilized by I. Hydrogen bonds II. Disulphide bonds III. Glycolidic bonds IV. Hydrophobic interactions                         
A
I and II are correct
B
II, III and IV are correct
C
I and IV are correct
D
I, II and IV are correct
Question 15
Two dimensional electrophoresis involves                               
A
SDS-PAGE in 1st dimension and IEF in 2nd dimension
B
IEF in 1st dimension and SDS-PAGE in 2nd dimension
C
IEF in 1st dimension and PFGE in 2nd dimension
D
IEF in 1st dimension and TLC in 2nd dimension
Question 16
Electron Transport chain contains the following components: I. Cytochrome C-oxidase II. Succinate/COQ oxidoreductase III. NADH : COQ oxidoreductase IV. Coenzyme Q : cytochrome oxidoreductase Choose correct one of following sequences                          
A
III, II, IV, I
B
II, III, IV, I
C
I, IV, III, II
D
IV, III, II, I
Question 17
The correct order of chromatin organization from the following is I. Nucleosome II. Solenoid III. Double stranded DNA IV. Chromosome Choose the correct sequence                        
A
I, IV, II, III
B
III, I, II, IV
C
I, II, III, IV
D
III, IV, I, II
Question 18
Give the correct sequence of following steps used in Southern hybridization 1. Blotting membrane 2. Restriction digestion 3. Detection 4. Separation by electrophoresis Choose the correct one                          
A
4, 1, 2, 3
B
2, 4, 1, 3
C
4, 2, 1, 3
D
2, 1, 4, 3
Question 19
According to ICBN Rules the suffix of family name ends with “aceae”, whereas prefix refers to                           
A
Specific epithet
B
Characteristic feature of the family
C
Generic epithet
D
Specific character of basic species
Question 20
Pick up the correct combination of the following using valid name and part used
A
Millets-Sorghum vulgare- Poaceae- caryopsis Pulses-Cajanus cajan-Fabaceae- Cotyledons Fibers-Gossypiumherbaceum- Malvaceae-Epidermal hairs of seed Fruit-Mangifera indica-Anacardiaceae- Epicarp and Mesocarp of drupe
B
Millets-Sorghum vulgare-Poaceae- Caryopsis Pulses-Cajanus cajanus-Fabaceae- Cotyledons Fibers-Gossypium herbaceum- Malvaceae-Epidermal hairs of seed Fruit-Mangifera indica-Anacardiaceae- Epicarp and Mesocarp of drupe
C
Millets-Sorghum vulgare- Poaceae- Caryopsis Pulses-Cajanus cajan-Fabaceae- Cotyledons Fibers-Gossypiumherbaceum- Malvaceae-Epidermal hairs of fruit Fruit-Mangifera indica-Anacardiaceae- Epicarp and Mesocarp of drupe
D
Millets — Sorghum vulgare-Poaceae- Caryopsis Pulses-Cajanus cajan-Fabaceae- Cotyledons Fibers-Gossypiumherbaceum- Malvaceae-Epidermal hairs of seed Fruit-Mangifera indica-Anacardiaceae- Mesocarp and endocarp of drupe
Question 21
Assertion (A) : Apospory is not uncommon in some ferns like Pteris Reason (R) : In ferns some times the prothallus is formed from vegetative parts of sporophytic plant                             
A
Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
Both A and R are not true
D
A is true, but R is false
Question 22
This biosphere reserve is recently notified by the Government of India                         
A
Valley of Flowers
B
Nanda Devi
C
Nallamalais
D
Seshachalam
Question 23
Epiphytes are rare in Delhi because it has                             
A
Moist climate
B
Semi-arid climate
C
Large amount of factories
D
Large number of automobiles
Question 24
Arrange the following in progressive manner with special reference to ecological succession in xerosere I. Funaria II. Rhizocarpon III. Poa IV. Trees                        
A
I, II, III, IV
B
II, I, IV, III
C
II, I, III, IV
D
I, III, II, IV
Question 25
Match the following:
 1. Aquatic habitats  I. Sciophytes
 2. Community in abundant light II. Xerophytes
 3. Community in shade III. Heliophytes
 4. Community in dry conditions IV. Mesophytes
  V. Hydrophytes
    
  1 2 3 4
 (A) V III I II
 (B) V IV I II
 (C) V III II I
 (D) V II I III
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 26
Pick up the sources of air pollution from the following: I. Volcanic eruptions II. Dust storms III. Domestic sewage IV. Pulp mills V. CFMs                        
A
I, II and III
B
I, II, III and V
C
II, IV and V
D
I, II and V
Question 27
Which of the following has more redox potential (E0) value?                           
A
Flavo proteins
B
Cytochrome B
C
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
D
Ubiquinone
Question 28
Respiratory quotient (R.Q) value of a simple sugar is                             
A
Zero
B
More than one
C
Less than one
D
Equal to one
Question 29
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A), and the other labeled as Reason (R) Assertion (A): The pronounced decrease in quantum yield at red zone (greater than 680 nm) is termed as red drop. It is also known as Emerson’s effect. Reason (R): Discovery of Emerson’s effect has clearly shown the existence of two photosystems. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct? Codes:                             
A
A is correct but R is wrong
B
A is wrong but R is correct
C
A is correct, R is also correct
D
A is wrong, R is also wrong
Question 30
Arrange the following compounds in order in which they appear in Krebs cycle. Use the code given below. I. Succinic acid II. Fumaric acid III. Oxaloacetic acid IV. Malic acid Code:                             
A
III, IV, II, I
B
I, II, IV, III
C
II, III, I, IV
D
I, III, II, IV
Question 31
Which one of the following combination or chromosome number (N) and DNA content (C) is true of the diplotene stage of mammalian oocytes?                                    
A
1N & 2C
B
2N & 4C
C
2N & 2C
D
1N & 4C
Question 32
Assertion (A): As polyspermy is being slowly blocked, the cortical granules explode and release their contents into the perivitelline space. Reason (R): Quick blocking of polyspermy sets in depolarization of the egg plasmalemma and mobilization of Ca2+ from stores with in the egg.                              
A
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
A is true but R is false
D
Both A and R are false
Question 33
During early human brain development primary vesicles listed in List I gives rise to derivatives in List II
  List I List II
 I. Telencephalon 1. Mid brain
 II. Mesencephalon 2. Optic vesicle
 III. Diencephalon 3. Cerebellum
 IV. Myelencephalon 4. Hippocampus
Code:
  I II III IV
 (A) 4 1 2 3
 (B) 2 1 3 4
 (C) 4 2 1 3
 (D) 3 2 1 4
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 34
During neural tube formation in the chick embryo the neural plate involves following events in sequences                                     
A
Shaping, convergence, folding, elevation, clockwise
B
Convergence, elevation, folding, shaping, clockwise
C
Shaping, folding, elevation, convergence, clockwise
D
Convergence, shaping, elevation, folding, clockwise
Question 35
The order of evolutionary Pattern of nitrogen excretion in animals is as follows                      
A
Urea, Uric acid, Ammonia
B
Ammonia, Uric acid, Urea
C
Urea, Ammonia, Uric acid
D
Ammonia, Urea, Uric acid
Question 36
Assertion (A): Absorption of the products of carbohydrates and protein digestion are against a concentration gradient, whereas the absorption of the products of lipids are different. Reason (R): The end products of carbohydrates, proteins are absorbed into the epithelial cells of intestine is by active transport, whereas the products of lipids are by diffusion. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct                      
A
A is correct but R is wrong
B
Both A and R are correct
C
A is wrong but R is correct
D
Both A and R are wrong
Question 37
Which one of the following chromosome combinations is expected in an offspring obtained after selfing a plant having AA BB CC DD homologous pairs? I. AA II. BB III. CC IV. DD The correct sequence of the above is                                  
A
I, III, II and IV
B
I, II, III and IV
C
I, IV, III and II
D
I, III, IV and II
Question 38
Match the most commonly detected blood- group systems with probable number of their alleles
 List I Blood Group    List II Alleles
 I. ABo 1   20+
 II. MNSc 2   5
 III. P 3   30+
 IV. Rh 4    4
      
 I II III IV
 (A) 2 1 4 3
 (B) 1 2 3 4
 (C) 4 3 2 1
 (D) 3 4 2 1
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 39
Assertion (A): Gene is a biological entity- a heritable function detected by observing the effect of a mutation. A gene consists of all the DNA sequences necessary to produce a single peptide or RNA product. Reason (R): The gene is single, contiguous protein encoding stretch of DNA. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?                          
A
Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
A is true but R is false
D
Both A and R are false
Question 40
Sex linked genes on the entire X-chromosome of Drosophila melanogaster mapped and found to have a length of                         
A
78 map units
B
68 map units
C
80 map units
D
82 map units
Question 41
What are the two theories that are combined in the synthetic theory of evolution?                         
A
Darwin’s theory of natural selection and Lamarck’s theory of use and disuse
B
Mendel’s theory of heredity and Heckel’s theory of ontogeny repeats phylogeny
C
Darwin’s theory of natural selection and Mendel’s theory of heredity
D
Lamarck’s theory of use and disuse and Heckel’s theory of ontogeny repeats phylogeny
Question 42
Match the various types of isolating mechanisms that prevent gene exchange between population of related species of organisms
  List I    List II
 I. Habitat Isolation  1. Populations are isolated by different and incompatible behaviour
 II. Seasonal Isolation 2. Restricted by differences in structure of reproductive organs
 III. Ethological Isolation 3. Populations live in same regions but occupy different habitats
 IV. Mechanical Isolation 4. Population exist in the same region but are sexually mature at different times
   
  I II III IV
 (A) 1 3 4 2
 (B) 3 4 1 2
 (C) 2 4 1 3
 (D) 3 2 1 4
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 43
Arrange following fossils in a row leading from more like reptiles to more like mammals I. Pelycosauria II. Cyanodonta III. Therapsida IV. Mammalia                      
A
I, II, III and IV
B
II, III, I and IV
C
I, III, II and IV
D
II, I, III and IV
Question 44
Assertion (A): The finches beaks evolved to be larger in times of food shortage and smaller in times of abundance. Reason (R): The food supply fluctuated through time according to weather.                             
A
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
B
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C
A is true but R is false
D
A is false but R is true
Question 45
Q. No. 45-48 Read the passage below, and answer the questions that follow based on your understanding of the passage. DNA replication takes place at a ‘Y’-shaped structure called a replication fork. A self correcting DNA polymerase enzyme catalyzes nucleotide polymerization in a 5’-to-3’ direction, copying a DNA template strand with remarkable fidelity. Since the two strands of a DNA double helix are antiparallel, this 5’ -to- 3’ DNA synthesis can take place continuously on only one of the strands at a replication fork (the leading strand). On the lagging strand, short DNA fragments must be made by a ‘backstiching’ process. Because the self correcting DNA polymerase cannot start a new chain, these lagging strand DNA fragments are primed by a short RNA primer molecules that are subsequently erased and replaced with DNA. DNA replication requires the cooperation of many proteins. These include i. DNA polymerase and DNA primase to catalyze nucleotide triphosphate polymerization; ii. DNA helicases and single strand DNA- binding (SSB) proteins to help in opening up DNA helix so that it can be copied; iii. DNA ligase and an enzyme that degrades RNA primers to seal together the discontinuously synthesized laggings- strand DNA fragments; and iv. DNA topoisomerases to help to relieve helical winding and DNA tangling problems. Many of these proteins associate with each other at a replication fork to form a highly efficient ‘replication machine’, through which the activities and spatial movements of the individual components are coordinated. Helical winding of DNA is removed by an enzyme        
A
DNA polymerase
B
DNA primase
C
DNA helicase
D
DNA topoisomerase
Question 46
Discontinually synthesized lagging strand DNA fragments are sealed by which one of the following enzyme?                     
A
RNA primase
B
DNA ligase
C
Single strand binding proteins
D
DNA polymerase
Question 47
Which one of the following four statements is incorrect?                              
A
Leading strand is synthesized in 5’→3’ direction
B
Lagging strand is synthesized by ‘backstitching’ process
C
DNA polymerase can directly synthesize new chain of DNA
D
Antiparallel strands of DNA are separated by helicases
Question 48
Which one of the following four statements is correct?                                 
A
Leading strands is synthesized in fragments
B
DNA fragments synthesis is initiated by DNA primer
C
Leading and lagging strands are synthesized in different manner because the DNA strands are antiparallel
D
DNA polymerase alone coordinates replication of DNA process
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SET/SLET Life Science Paper III - Online Mock Test

Congratulations - you have completed SET/SLET Life Science Paper III - Online Mock Test.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The highest concentration of cystine can be found in                      
A
Myosin
B
Keratin
C
Collagen
D
Spectrin
Question 2
A membrane bound enzyme that catalyses the formation of cAMP from ATP is                           
A
MAP Kinase
B
Receptor Kinase
C
ATP phosphorylase
D
Adenyl cyclase
Question 3
Assertion (A) : Quarum sensing is the ability of bacteria to communicate and coordinate behaviour. Reason (R) : Bacteria those use Quarum sensing to producer and secrete a signaling chemical called as “Inducer”.                      
A
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
B
Both A and R are true, but R is the false explanation
C
A is true, but R is false
D
A is false, but R is true
Question 4
Assertion (A): Interferons are produced by the host against viral infection. Reason (R) : Interferons are essential for viral replication.                                   
A
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
B
Both A and R are true, but R is the false explanation
C
A is true, but R is false
D
A is false, but R is true
Question 5
Chylomicrons, Intermediate density lipoproteins (IDL), Low density Lipoproteins (LDL) and very low density Lipoproteins all are serum Lipoproteins. What is correct ordering of these particles from the lowest to the greatest density?                             
A
LDL, IDL, VLDL, Chylomicra
B
Chylomicra, VLDL, IDL, LDL
C
VLDL, IDL, LDL, Chylomicra
D
Chylomicra, IDL, VLDL, LDL
Question 6
The sequence of the steps involved in the viral replication I) Attachment II) Penetration III) Genome replication and Expression IV) Uncoating Arrange the above steps in chronologically                                             
A
I, II, III, IV
B
III, II, I, IV
C
II, III, IV, I
D
I, II, IV, III
Question 7
In the area of desmosome the adjacent cells have I) Intercellular thickening material II) Cilia III) Transmembrane linkers IV) Protein sheath                                      
A
I and IV are correct
B
II and IV are correct
C
I, II and III are correct
D
I and III are correct
Question 8
Viruses contain the following I) Genome II) Capsid III) Capsule IV) Enzyme                                  
A
I, II, III are correct
B
I, II, III, IV are correct
C
I ,II, IV are correct
D
II, III, IV are correct
Question 9
DNA polymerase I are multifunctional enzymes because it promotes I) Polymerisation reaction II) Removal of nucleotides from 3’terminus in DNA III) Removal of nucleotides from 5’ terminus in DNA IV) Joining of ends of DNA fragments                               
A
I & IV are correct
B
II & IV are correct
C
III & IV are correct
D
I, II & III are correct
Question 10
Most of DNA binding Proteins insert the following structure into the major groove of DNA during binding                                 
A
Beta-sheet
B
Alpha-helix
C
Beta-Turn
D
Triple-helix
Question 11
Coding region of an mRNA is 336 nucleotides long, including the initiator and termination codons. What is the number of amino acids in the protein translated from this mRNA?                               
A
109
B
110
C
111
D
112
Question 12
Origin of replication in E.coli consists of I) Repetitive elements II) GC rich regions III) AT rich regions IV) Series of U residues                          
A
III is correct
B
I and III are correct
C
I, III and IV are correct
D
IV is correct
Question 13
Bt Cotton contains                                         
A
dry gene
B
Cry gene
C
Nif gene
D
AmpR gene
Question 14
Choose the correct signal transduction pathway.                             
A
Hormone → 7 TM Receptor→ G Protein → cAMP → PKA
B
Hormone → G protein → 7 TM Receptor → cAMP → PKA
C
Hormone →7 TM Receptor → G protein → PKA → cAMP
D
Hormone → 7 TM Receptor → cAMP → G protein → PKA
Question 15
Which of the following can form a part of a Biosensor? I) Enzyme II) Antibody III) Lipid IV) Vitamin                      
A
III and IV are correct
B
II and IV are correct
C
I and II are correct
D
I, II and III are correct
Question 16
Name the enzyme act as Intracellular mediator for growth factor receptor                                  
A
MAP Kinases
B
Phosphodiesterases (PDE)
C
JAK Kinases
D
ß— adrenergic receptor Kinase (BARK)
Question 17
DNA can be radiolabelled with I) P32 II) I125 III) P33 IV) S35                              
A
I, II and III are correct
B
I and III are correct
C
I, III and IV are correct
D
II and IV are correct
Question 18
Electrophoresis of a purified protein called X in the presence of SDS and beta-Mercaptoethanol shows a single band of 60 KDa. In gel filtration experiment protein X elutes between alcohol dehydrogenase (160 KDa) and beta-amylase (190 KDa). How many identical subunits in the protein X composed of?                           
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 19
Branched hydrophobic amino acids are I) Valine II) Leucine III) Isoleucine IV) Threonine                           
A
I & IV are correct
B
I, II & III are correct
C
I & II are correct
D
Only I is correct
Question 20
Assertion (A): Olfaction and taste are important sensory modalities for insects, particularly in mating, oviposition and food selection. Reason (R): Chaemo reception in insects is well established than the other animals.                                 
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
B
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 21
Match the Jaw suspension type in various organisms.
 List—I List—II
 I) Autodiastylic 1) elasmobranchs
 II) Amphistylic 2) mammals
 III) Hyostylic 3) bony fishes
 IV) Autostylic 4) shark
     
  I II III IV
 (A) 1 2 3 4
 (B) 2 1 4 3
 (C) 3 4 1 2
 (D) 4 2 1 3
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 22
Arrange the transport pigments in the order of evolutionary origin from more recent                          
A
Haemoglobin, Myoglobin, Chlorocruorin, Haemocyanin
B
Myoglobin, Chlorocrcruorin, Haemoglobin, Haemocyanin
C
Haemocyanin, Chlorocrcruorin, Myoglobin, Haemoglobin
D
Haemocyanin, Haemoglobin, Myoglobin, Chlorocruorin
Question 23
Match List I (genes) with List II (character) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
  List—I  List—II
 I) Incomplete dominance 1) Human skin colour
 II) Codominance 2) Purple colour in maize due to anthocyanin
 III) Polygenes 3) Human being belonging to AB blood group
 IV) Complementary genes 4) Pink colour in 4 O’ clock plant
Code:
  I II III IV
 (A) 4 3 1 2
 (B) 3 4 2 1
 (C) 4 3 2 1
 (D) 3 4 1 2
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 24
The cross over percentage between linked genes J and M is 20%, J and L is 35%, J and N is 70%, L and K is 15%, M and N 50%. Thus the sequence of genes on the chromosome is                                 
A
J, N, M, L, K
B
J, M, L, N, K
C
J, M, L, K, N
D
M, J, L, K, N
Question 25
Mammals and birds were originated in which of the following era/epoch/period?                      
A
Jurassic period
B
Eocene and Oligocene
C
Carboniferous and permian
D
All of these
Question 26
The Hardy-Weinberg law is expressed as (p + q)2, where ‘p’ and ‘q’ stands for                                
A
Frequency of heterozygotes
B
Frequency of alleles in population
C
Gene frequencies in population
D
Genotype frequencies in population
Question 27
Assertion (A): Autonomous specification gives rise to a pattern of embryogenesis referred to as mosaic development. If particular blastomere is removed early in its development, that isolated blastomere will produce the same type of cells that it would have made if it were still part of the embryo. Reason (R): The embryo appears to be constructed like a file mosaic of independent, self differentiating pails.                                  
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 28
Assertion (A): Structures of globular proteins are accurately determined with X-ray diffraction. Reason (R): Wave length of X-rays is less than 2°A and the resolution of structural information achievable is around 2°A.                                  
A
A & R are correct. R is explanation for A
B
A is false, but R is correct
C
A is correct, but R is false
D
Both A and R are false
Question 29
Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): Foreign genes can be cloned into Plasmid cloning vectors. Reason (R): Cloning vectors can be used for expressing the foreign genes in bacterial systems. Which of these statements is correct?                                  
A
Both A and R are correct
B
Both A and R are wrong
C
A is correct, R is wrong
D
A is wrong, R is correct
Question 30
Given below are two statements Assertion (A): Plant breeders have an advantage over the animal breeders. Reason (R): Plant breeders can employ clonal propagation. Which of the statements are correct?                         
A
A and R are correct and R is the explanation for A
B
A and R are correct and R is not the explanation for A
C
A is wrong, but R is correct
D
Both A and R are wrong
Question 31
Identify the correct statement                                  
A
Went’s theory explains the reasons for geotropism
B
Thigmotropic movements are shown by Desmodium gyrans
C
Coiling of tendrils around a hard stem are nyctinastic movements
D
Movements of tentacles of Drosera are chemotropic movements
Question 32
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A), and the other labeled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Several factors are responsible for seed dormancy. One of the factors is immature embryo. Reason (R): Seed dormancy caused by immature embryo can be overcome by scarification. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct? Codes:                                         
A
A is correct, R is also correct
B
A is wrong, R is correct
C
A is correct, R is wrong
D
A is wrong and R is also wrong
Question 33
List I consists of some terms and List II includes their corresponding definitions. Select the code showing correct matching
  List—I (Terms)   List—II (Definitions)
 I) Photooxidation 1) Influence of duration of day and night on flowering of plants
 II) Photoperiodism 2) Splitting of water molecule by light
 III) Photolysis 3) Damage of cells under high intensity of light
 IV) Photorespiration 4) Respiration in chloroplasts during day time
Codes:
  I II III IV
 (A) 4 3 1 2
 (B) 3 4 2 1
 (C) 2 1 4 3
 (D) 3 1 2 4
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 34
The light sensitive plant pigment phytochrome was first isolated by                          
A
Borthwick and Coworders
B
Garner and Allard
C
Butler and his colleagues
D
Hammer and Bonner
Question 35
Which one of the following is NOT a correct statement?                             
A
Calcium is a component of chlorophyll
B
Iron is a structural component of porphyrin molecules
C
Boron plays an important role in translocation of sugars
D
Molybdenum plays active role in nitrogen fixation
Question 36
List I consists of some terms and List II includes corresponding definitions. Select the code showing correct matching
 List—I  (Terms) List—II  (Definitions)
 I) Nitrification 1) Conversion of nitrates to gaseous nitrogen
 II) Denitrification 2) Conversion of NHto NO3
 III) Nitrogen fixation 3) Conversion of proteins to ammonia
 IV) Ammonification 4) Conversion of gaseous nitrogen to ammonia
Codes:
  I II III IV
 (A) 1 2 3 4
 (B) 2 1 4 3
 (C) 3 4 2 1
 (D) 4 1 2 3
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 37
The following proteins are involved in protein synthesis on ribosomes 1) EF-TU 2) RF1 3) RRF 4) EF-G 5) 1F2 What is the sequence of their involvent in the translation process ?                         
A
1, 5, 2, 3, 4
B
2, 3, 1, 4, 5
C
5, 2, 3, 1, 4
D
5, 1, 4, 2, 3
Question 38
Choose the correct sequence of the following tools applied in proteomic I) MALDI—TOF II) IEE III) SDS-PAGE IV) Isolation of proteins                          
A
III, II, I, IV
B
II, III, IV, I
C
IV, II, III, I
D
I, III, IV, II
Question 39
Five proteins with the following PI values were separated by isoelectric focusing 1) 3.6 2) 2.9 3) 7.2 4) 6.5 5) 8.5 What is the order of their migration from the anode (closest to farthest)?                         
A
5, 3, 4, 1, 2
B
3, 4, 5, 1, 2
C
2, 1, 4, 3, 5
D
5, 2, 3, 1, 4
Question 40
Match the following:
 I) Somaclonal variation 1) Anther culture
 II) Haploid culture 2) Suspension culture
 III) Protoplast isolation 3) Callus culture
 IV) Secondary metabolite Production 4) Cell wall degrading enzymes
    
  I II III IV
 (A) 2 3 4 1
 (B) 4 1 2 3
 (C) 3 2 1 4
 (D) 3 1 4 2
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 41
Match the items of Column A with Column B
 Column—A  Column—B
 I) Plasma Membrane 1) DNA polymerase
 II) Nucleus 2) 5’ Nucleotidase
 III) Mitochondria 3) Catalase and peroxidase
 IV) Microbodies 4) SDH
   
  I II III IV
 (A) 2 1 4 3
 (B) 1 2 3 4
 (C) 4 3 2 1
 (D) 3 4 1 2
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 42
Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly?                  
A
Production of recombinant protein — Expression vector
B
Type of molecular marker — YAC
C
Immunological detection method — ELISA
D
Measurement of radioactivity — scintillation counting
Question 43
Match the following
 I) Allosteric enzyme 1) PDC
 II) Isoenzyme 2) Acetyl CoA
 III) Multienzyme complex 3) LDH
 IV) Coenzyme 4) ATcase
    
  I II III IV
 (A) 1 4 3 2
 (B) 4 3 1 2
 (C) 3 1 4 2
 (D) 2 4 3 1
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 44
Which of the following pairs is matched correctly?                        
A
Protein involved in transcription termination in prokaryotes — RF1
B
General transcription factor involved in initiation of transcription in eukaryotes — sigma factor
C
Protein involved in elongation of translation — EF.TU
D
Enzyme involved in unwinding of DNA helix — Topoisomerase
Question 45
Which of the following pairs is not paired correctly?                        
A
All family of repetitive elements — LINES
B
Transposons identified in Drosophila — Pelement
C
Tandemly repeated elements — VNTRs
D
Mobile elements found in maize — Ac-Ds elements
Question 46
Given below are two statements Assertion (A): Aminoacylation of t RNA is a very accurate process. Reason (R): Proof reading does not occur during aminoacylation of t RNA by aminoacyl tRNA synthetases. Which of these statements are true?                            
A
Both A and R are true
B
A is true, but R is false
C
Both A and R are false
D
A is false, but R is true
Question 47
Given below are two statements Assertion (A): Lac operon is activated in bacteria by the presence of lactose in the medium. Reason (R): Lac operon is not affected by glucose concentration in the medium. Which of these statements are true?                         
A
(A) is false, but (R) is true
B
Both (A) and (R) are false
C
Both (A) and (R) are true
D
(A) is true, but (R) is false
Question 48
Assertion (A): A. Monellin is a sweetner and it is a protein. When it is heated its sweetness is lost Reason (R): The reason for its sweetness lies in its confirmation                           
A
A and R are correct
B
A and R are wrong
C
A is correct and R is wrong
D
A is wrong and R is correct
Question 49
In a flower odd sepal is anterior, petals arranged in dessendingly imbricate aestivation. This flowers belong to the family                  
A
Fabaceae (s.s.)
B
Fabaceae (s.e.)
C
Caesalpiniaceae
D
Mimosaceae
Question 50
Taxonomy refers to I) Identification and Nomenclature II) Nomenclature and classification III) Classification IV) Classification and evolution             
A
I & IV
B
I & II
C
I & III
D
II only
Question 51
Assertion (A): Based on formation of mucilage due to partial dissolution of outer pectin wall in water, spirogyra is also called pond silk. Reason (R): In a matured cell of Spirogyra the cytoplasm is peripheral with a central vacuole                    
A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
Both (A) and (R) are false
Question 52
Match the following:
 1) Engler I) Chemosystematics
 2) Secondary metabolite II) Oak
 3) Natural system III) Embryophyta siphanogama
 4) Nut IV) Alpha taxonomy
  V) Marigold
   
  1 2 3 4
 (A) IV I III V
 (B) III I IV V
 (C) IV I III II
 (D) III I IV II
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 53
Indicate the four correct statements from the following: I) Cotton is used either alone or in combination with other fibres in manufacturing all types of textiles II) Cotton seed oil is used as lubricant and the oil cake is used as poultry feed III) Mercerised cotton is resulted by treating the cotton fibres with caustic soda IV) The fuzz (short hairs) is used in preparation of pillows, cushions and mattresses V) Cotton treated with nitric acid to produce gun powder, which is used in making explosives             
A
I, II, III & IV
B
I, III, IV & V
C
II, III, IV & V
D
I, II, IV & V
Question 54
The system of classification proposed by these scientists is also called as Neo-Adansonian system                                  
A
Engler & Prantl
B
Bentham & Hooker
C
Sokal & Sneath
D
Camp & Gilly
Question 55
Pick up the wrong statement from the following:                      
A
The rate of production of total organic material is known as gross primary productivity
B
The balance energy or biomass remaining after meeting the cost of respiration of producers is called net primary productivity
C
The productivity is of three kinds: primary, secondary and tertiary
D
Net productivity = Gross productivity — Respiration and other losses
Question 56
The several stages of hydrosere along with their suitable examples are given. Indicate the correct matches from them. I) Plank stage — Diatoms II) Woodland stage — Juncus III) Floating stage — Nymphaea IV) Submerged stage — Hydrilla V) Reed swamp stage — Sagittaria                     
A
I, II, III & IV
B
I, III, IV & V
C
II, III, IV & V
D
I, II, III & V
Question 57
Addition of consortium or cocktail of micro-organisms to the polluted soil is known as                    
A
Biostimulation
B
Biomagnification
C
Biofencing
D
Bioaugmentation
Question 58
Match the following:
 1) Littoral and swamp forests I) Savannas
 2) Montane wet temperate forests  II) Mangroves
 3) Natural grasslands  III) Relics
 4) Species show a restricted distribution but cover large areas in course of time IV) Sholas
  V) Progressive endemics
   
  1 2 3 4
 (A) II IV I V
 (B) II IV I III
 (C) IV III I V
 (D) IV II I III
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 59
The study of migration of birds is known as                     
A
Phrenology
B
Phenology
C
Pedology
D
Odentology
Question 60
Assertion (A): The Japanese and Philippine lakes are volcanic lakes in which the extreme chemical conditions are seen. Reason (R): Acid or alkaline lakes associated with volcanic regions are called volcanic lakes.                 
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
Both (A) and (R) are false
Question 61
If the fertilized egg of a plant has 40 chromo-mes, the number of chromosomes present in the pollen mother cell is              
A
80
B
160
C
40
D
60
Question 62
The female gametophyte of a typical dicot (polygonum) at the time of fertilization is                         
A
8 nucleate and 7 celled
B
7 nucleate and 8 celled
C
4 nucleate and 4 celled
D
8 nucleate and 8 celled
Question 63
Assertion (A): In cleodic egg, the development of embryo is arrested in freshly laid eggs Reason (R): Freshly laid eggs show drop in temperature so they need incubation                      
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
(A) is true, but R is false
D
Both (A) and (R) are false
Question 64
Match the pattern of embryonic cleavage type (in List 1) with organisms (in List 2)
 List—1   List—2
 I) Radial cleavage 1) Echinoderms
 II) Spiral cleavage 2) Tunicates
 III) Bilateral cleavage 3) Mammals
 IV) Rotational cleavage 4) Annelids
Code:
  I II III IV
 (A) 1 2 3 4
 (B) 3 2 1 4
 (C) 4 3 1 2
 (D) 1 4 2 3
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 65
During differentiation different cell types make different sets of proteins at several levels in following sequences I) Differential gene transcription II) Differential RNA translation III) Differential RNA processing IV) Differential protein modification                  
A
III, II, I and IV
B
I, II, III and IV
C
I, III, II and IV
D
I, IV, II and III
Question 66
If the deleterious effect of a mutation in a gene are overcome by a mutation in another gene, the process is called                      
A
Extra genetic (or) intragenic suppress ion
B
Non-sense mutation
C
Frame shift mutation
D
Somatic mutation
Question 67
Extra chromosomal inheritance of male sterility was discovered in maize by               
A
Dhawan and Paliwal
B
M.A. Overman and H.E. Warmke
C
Jones and Clarke
D
M.M. Rhodes
Question 68
Assertion (A): Mental and motor retardation and death by ages 2-4 years are phenotypic effects in the individuals of Tay-Sachs disease. Reason (R): In the individuals of Tay-Sachs disease galactose-1 -phosphate uridyl transferase fails to catalyze transformation of galactose into glucose.                     
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
Both (A) and (R) are false
Question 69
Assertion (A): Adapted characters acquired by an organism are not inherited. Reason (R): They do not get the sufficient time to be fixed at the genetic level.                    
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
Both (A) and (R) are false
Question 70
Assertion (A): Geological evidence indicates that free oxygen began accumulating in the atmosphere about two billion years ago. Reason (R): The free oxygen in the atmosphere is produced by cyanobacteria like forms.                   
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
Both (A) and (R) are false
Question 71
Assertion (A): The records of evolution of birds is sketchy. Reason (R): The pneumatic bones of birds make poor fossils.                     
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
Both (A) and (R) are false
Question 72
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
 List—I (Animals)  List—II (Their realm)
 I) Protopterus 1) Australian
 II) Opossum  2) Ethiopian
 III) Sphenodon 3) Nearctic
 IV) Prehensile tailed monkey 4) Neotropical
Code:
  I II III IV
 (A) 2 3 1 4
 (B) 2 1 3 4
 (C) 4 1 3 2
 (D) 4 3 1 2
 
A
(A)
B
(B)
C
(C)
D
(D)
Question 73
According to Darwinism which one represents the correct sequence of events in the origin of new species? I) Natural selection, Variation and their inheritance-Survival of the fittest, Struggle for existence II) Variation and their inheritance, Survival of the fittest, Natural selection, struggle for existence III) Survival of the fittest, Struggle for existence, Natural selection, Variation and their inheritance IV) Struggle for existence, Variation and their inheritance, Survival of the fittest, Natural selection The correct sequence of these scales from the earliest to the most recent                 
A
I, II, III, IV
B
II, III, I, IV
C
III, IV, I, II
D
IV, II, III, I
Question 74
Enterokinase stimulates                     
A
Trypsin
B
Trypsinogen
C
Pepsin
D
Pepsinogen
Question 75
In the detoxification of ammonia, the key intermediate product i.e., the synthesis of citrulline is appeared to be present in the following extra hepatic tissues I) Brain II) Intestine III) Kidney IV) Lungs                
A
I, II and III are correct
B
I and II are correct
C
I and III are correct
D
I, III and IV are correct
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