SET Life Science Question Answers

Eukaryotic mRNA can be separated from the total RNA by                          

Which of the following involves the combining of two cells without cell walls from different plants?                    

Non-polar amino acid residues are found mostly             

Which of the following organellae does not carry out transcription ?                   

Given below are two statements Assertion (A): Hexokinase and Glucokinase have low and high k_m towards glucose respectively. Reason (R): Glucokinase operates under high glucose concentratian only. Which of these statements are correct?                  

Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) Assertion (A): Protooncogenes are found in most of the animal cells. Reason (R): They are related to viral oncogenes. In the context of these statements which one of the following is correct?                       

Given below are two statements Assertion (A): All eukaryotic mRNAs are capped at 5’end Reason (R) : 5’ cap is not essential for efficient mRNA translation Which of these statements are correct?                          

Match the following

I. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance	1 Microwaves
II. Electron Spin Resonance	2. Radiowaves
III. Raman spectroscopy	3. UV/Visible light
IV. Spectrophotometry	4 Infrared waves

 

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	4	3	2	1
(B)	1	2	4	3
(C)	2	1	4	3
(D)	2	3	4	1

 

Match the following

I. Bt cotton	1. Improved shelf life
II. Flavr Savr Tomato	2. Improved nutritional quality
III. Roundup Ready Sorghum	3. Pest resistance
IV. Golden Yellow Rice	4 Herbicide tolerance

   

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	4	2	1	3
(B)	3	1	4	2
(C)	4	2	3	1
(D)	3	2	1	4

 

Viruses that persist in the cell and cause recurrent disease are called                          

Assertion (A) : Indirect somatic embryogenesis, embryos are developed without going through callus formation. Reason (R) : This is possible due to the presence of pre-embryonically determined cells.                         

In complement cascade the complement 1 activate as follows I. C1q II. C1r III. C1s IV. C1d                       

Match the following

I.   Pyridoxal phosphate	1. Vitamin B1
II.  Niacin	2. Vitamin B6
III. Thiamin pyrophosphate	3. Vitamin B2
IV. Flavin nucleotides	4. Vitamin B3

    

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	1	2	3	4
(B)	2	4	1	3
(C)	4	3	2	1
(D)	3	4	1	2

 

The protein structure is stabilized by I. Hydrogen bonds II. Disulphide bonds III. Glycolidic bonds IV. Hydrophobic interactions                         

Two dimensional electrophoresis involves                               

Electron Transport chain contains the following components: I. Cytochrome C-oxidase II. Succinate/COQ oxidoreductase III. NADH : COQ oxidoreductase IV. Coenzyme Q : cytochrome oxidoreductase Choose correct one of following sequences                          

The correct order of chromatin organization from the following is I. Nucleosome II. Solenoid III. Double stranded DNA IV. Chromosome Choose the correct sequence                        

Give the correct sequence of following steps used in Southern hybridization 1. Blotting membrane 2. Restriction digestion 3. Detection 4. Separation by electrophoresis Choose the correct one                          

According to ICBN Rules the suffix of family name ends with “aceae”, whereas prefix refers to                           

Pick up the correct combination of the following using valid name and part used

Assertion (A) : Apospory is not uncommon in some ferns like Pteris Reason (R) : In ferns some times the prothallus is formed from vegetative parts of sporophytic plant                             

This biosphere reserve is recently notified by the Government of India                         

Epiphytes are rare in Delhi because it has                             

Arrange the following in progressive manner with special reference to ecological succession in xerosere I. Funaria II. Rhizocarpon III. Poa IV. Trees                        

Match the following:

1. Aquatic habitats	I. Sciophytes
2. Community in abundant light	II. Xerophytes
3. Community in shade	III. Heliophytes
4. Community in dry conditions	IV. Mesophytes
	V. Hydrophytes

    

	1	2	3	4
(A)	V	III	I	II
(B)	V	IV	I	II
(C)	V	III	II	I
(D)	V	II	I	III

 

Pick up the sources of air pollution from the following: I. Volcanic eruptions II. Dust storms III. Domestic sewage IV. Pulp mills V. CFMs                        

Which of the following has more redox potential (E₀) value?                           

Respiratory quotient (R.Q) value of a simple sugar is                             

Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A), and the other labeled as Reason (R) Assertion (A): The pronounced decrease in quantum yield at red zone (greater than 680 nm) is termed as red drop. It is also known as Emerson’s effect. Reason (R): Discovery of Emerson’s effect has clearly shown the existence of two photosystems. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct? Codes:                             

Arrange the following compounds in order in which they appear in Krebs cycle. Use the code given below. I. Succinic acid II. Fumaric acid III. Oxaloacetic acid IV. Malic acid Code:                             

Which one of the following combination or chromosome number (N) and DNA content (C) is true of the diplotene stage of mammalian oocytes?                                    

Assertion (A): As polyspermy is being slowly blocked, the cortical granules explode and release their contents into the perivitelline space. Reason (R): Quick blocking of polyspermy sets in depolarization of the egg plasmalemma and mobilization of Ca²⁺ from stores with in the egg.                              

During early human brain development primary vesicles listed in List I gives rise to derivatives in List II

List I	List II
I. Telencephalon	1. Mid brain
II. Mesencephalon	2. Optic vesicle
III. Diencephalon	3. Cerebellum
IV. Myelencephalon	4. Hippocampus

Code:

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	4	1	2	3
(B)	2	1	3	4
(C)	4	2	1	3
(D)	3	2	1	4

 

During neural tube formation in the chick embryo the neural plate involves following events in sequences                                     

The order of evolutionary Pattern of nitrogen excretion in animals is as follows                      

Assertion (A): Absorption of the products of carbohydrates and protein digestion are against a concentration gradient, whereas the absorption of the products of lipids are different. Reason (R): The end products of carbohydrates, proteins are absorbed into the epithelial cells of intestine is by active transport, whereas the products of lipids are by diffusion. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct                      

Which one of the following chromosome combinations is expected in an offspring obtained after selfing a plant having AA BB CC DD homologous pairs? I. AA II. BB III. CC IV. DD The correct sequence of the above is                                  

Match the most commonly detected blood- group systems with probable number of their alleles

List I Blood Group	List II Alleles
I. ABo	1   20+
II. MNSc	2   5
III. P	3   30+
IV. Rh	4    4

      

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	2	1	4	3
(B)	1	2	3	4
(C)	4	3	2	1
(D)	3	4	2	1

 

Assertion (A): Gene is a biological entity- a heritable function detected by observing the effect of a mutation. A gene consists of all the DNA sequences necessary to produce a single peptide or RNA product. Reason (R): The gene is single, contiguous protein encoding stretch of DNA. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?                          

Sex linked genes on the entire X-chromosome of Drosophila melanogaster mapped and found to have a length of                         

What are the two theories that are combined in the synthetic theory of evolution?                         

Match the various types of isolating mechanisms that prevent gene exchange between population of related species of organisms

List I	List II
I. Habitat Isolation	1. Populations are isolated by different and incompatible behaviour
II. Seasonal Isolation	2. Restricted by differences in structure of reproductive organs
III. Ethological Isolation	3. Populations live in same regions but occupy different habitats
IV. Mechanical Isolation	4. Population exist in the same region but are sexually mature at different times

   

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	1	3	4	2
(B)	3	4	1	2
(C)	2	4	1	3
(D)	3	2	1	4

 

Arrange following fossils in a row leading from more like reptiles to more like mammals I. Pelycosauria II. Cyanodonta III. Therapsida IV. Mammalia                      

Assertion (A): The finches beaks evolved to be larger in times of food shortage and smaller in times of abundance. Reason (R): The food supply fluctuated through time according to weather.                             

Q. No. 45-48 Read the passage below, and answer the questions that follow based on your understanding of the passage. DNA replication takes place at a ‘Y’-shaped structure called a replication fork. A self correcting DNA polymerase enzyme catalyzes nucleotide polymerization in a 5’-to-3’ direction, copying a DNA template strand with remarkable fidelity. Since the two strands of a DNA double helix are antiparallel, this 5’ -to- 3’ DNA synthesis can take place continuously on only one of the strands at a replication fork (the leading strand). On the lagging strand, short DNA fragments must be made by a ‘backstiching’ process. Because the self correcting DNA polymerase cannot start a new chain, these lagging strand DNA fragments are primed by a short RNA primer molecules that are subsequently erased and replaced with DNA. DNA replication requires the cooperation of many proteins. These include i. DNA polymerase and DNA primase to catalyze nucleotide triphosphate polymerization; ii. DNA helicases and single strand DNA- binding (SSB) proteins to help in opening up DNA helix so that it can be copied; iii. DNA ligase and an enzyme that degrades RNA primers to seal together the discontinuously synthesized laggings- strand DNA fragments; and iv. DNA topoisomerases to help to relieve helical winding and DNA tangling problems. Many of these proteins associate with each other at a replication fork to form a highly efficient ‘replication machine’, through which the activities and spatial movements of the individual components are coordinated. Helical winding of DNA is removed by an enzyme        

Discontinually synthesized lagging strand DNA fragments are sealed by which one of the following enzyme?                     

Which one of the following four statements is incorrect?                              

Which one of the following four statements is correct?                                 

The highest concentration of cystine can be found in                      

A membrane bound enzyme that catalyses the formation of cAMP from ATP is                           

Assertion (A) : Quarum sensing is the ability of bacteria to communicate and coordinate behaviour. Reason (R) : Bacteria those use Quarum sensing to producer and secrete a signaling chemical called as “Inducer”.                      

Assertion (A): Interferons are produced by the host against viral infection. Reason (R) : Interferons are essential for viral replication.                                   

Chylomicrons, Intermediate density lipoproteins (IDL), Low density Lipoproteins (LDL) and very low density Lipoproteins all are serum Lipoproteins. What is correct ordering of these particles from the lowest to the greatest density?                             

The sequence of the steps involved in the viral replication I) Attachment II) Penetration III) Genome replication and Expression IV) Uncoating Arrange the above steps in chronologically                                             

In the area of desmosome the adjacent cells have I) Intercellular thickening material II) Cilia III) Transmembrane linkers IV) Protein sheath                                      

Viruses contain the following I) Genome II) Capsid III) Capsule IV) Enzyme                                  

DNA polymerase I are multifunctional enzymes because it promotes I) Polymerisation reaction II) Removal of nucleotides from 3’terminus in DNA III) Removal of nucleotides from 5’ terminus in DNA IV) Joining of ends of DNA fragments                               

Most of DNA binding Proteins insert the following structure into the major groove of DNA during binding                                 

Coding region of an mRNA is 336 nucleotides long, including the initiator and termination codons. What is the number of amino acids in the protein translated from this mRNA?                               

Origin of replication in E.coli consists of I) Repetitive elements II) GC rich regions III) AT rich regions IV) Series of U residues                          

Bt Cotton contains                                         

Choose the correct signal transduction pathway.                             

Which of the following can form a part of a Biosensor? I) Enzyme II) Antibody III) Lipid IV) Vitamin                      

Name the enzyme act as Intracellular mediator for growth factor receptor                                  

DNA can be radiolabelled with I) P³² II) I¹²⁵ III) P³³ IV) S³⁵                              

Electrophoresis of a purified protein called X in the presence of SDS and beta-Mercaptoethanol shows a single band of 60 KDa. In gel filtration experiment protein X elutes between alcohol dehydrogenase (160 KDa) and beta-amylase (190 KDa). How many identical subunits in the protein X composed of?                           

Branched hydrophobic amino acids are I) Valine II) Leucine III) Isoleucine IV) Threonine                           

Assertion (A): Olfaction and taste are important sensory modalities for insects, particularly in mating, oviposition and food selection. Reason (R): Chaemo reception in insects is well established than the other animals.                                 

Match the Jaw suspension type in various organisms.

List—I	List—II
I) Autodiastylic	1) elasmobranchs
II) Amphistylic	2) mammals
III) Hyostylic	3) bony fishes
IV) Autostylic	4) shark

     

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	1	2	3	4
(B)	2	1	4	3
(C)	3	4	1	2
(D)	4	2	1	3

 

Arrange the transport pigments in the order of evolutionary origin from more recent                          

Match List I (genes) with List II (character) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List—I	List—II
I) Incomplete dominance	1) Human skin colour
II) Codominance	2) Purple colour in maize due to anthocyanin
III) Polygenes	3) Human being belonging to AB blood group
IV) Complementary genes	4) Pink colour in 4 O’ clock plant

Code:

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	4	3	1	2
(B)	3	4	2	1
(C)	4	3	2	1
(D)	3	4	1	2

 

The cross over percentage between linked genes J and M is 20%, J and L is 35%, J and N is 70%, L and K is 15%, M and N 50%. Thus the sequence of genes on the chromosome is                                 

Mammals and birds were originated in which of the following era/epoch/period?                      

The Hardy-Weinberg law is expressed as (p + q)², where ‘p’ and ‘q’ stands for                                

Assertion (A): Autonomous specification gives rise to a pattern of embryogenesis referred to as mosaic development. If particular blastomere is removed early in its development, that isolated blastomere will produce the same type of cells that it would have made if it were still part of the embryo. Reason (R): The embryo appears to be constructed like a file mosaic of independent, self differentiating pails.                                  

Assertion (A): Structures of globular proteins are accurately determined with X-ray diffraction. Reason (R): Wave length of X-rays is less than 2°A and the resolution of structural information achievable is around 2°A.                                  

Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): Foreign genes can be cloned into Plasmid cloning vectors. Reason (R): Cloning vectors can be used for expressing the foreign genes in bacterial systems. Which of these statements is correct?                                  

Given below are two statements Assertion (A): Plant breeders have an advantage over the animal breeders. Reason (R): Plant breeders can employ clonal propagation. Which of the statements are correct?                         

Identify the correct statement                                  

Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A), and the other labeled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Several factors are responsible for seed dormancy. One of the factors is immature embryo. Reason (R): Seed dormancy caused by immature embryo can be overcome by scarification. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct? Codes:                                         

List I consists of some terms and List II includes their corresponding definitions. Select the code showing correct matching

List—I (Terms)	List—II (Definitions)
I) Photooxidation	1) Influence of duration of day and night on flowering of plants
II) Photoperiodism	2) Splitting of water molecule by light
III) Photolysis	3) Damage of cells under high intensity of light
IV) Photorespiration	4) Respiration in chloroplasts during day time

Codes:

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	4	3	1	2
(B)	3	4	2	1
(C)	2	1	4	3
(D)	3	1	2	4

 

The light sensitive plant pigment phytochrome was first isolated by                          

Which one of the following is NOT a correct statement?                             

List I consists of some terms and List II includes corresponding definitions. Select the code showing correct matching

List—I  (Terms)	List—II  (Definitions)
I) Nitrification	1) Conversion of nitrates to gaseous nitrogen
II) Denitrification	2) Conversion of NH3 to NO3
III) Nitrogen fixation	3) Conversion of proteins to ammonia
IV) Ammonification	4) Conversion of gaseous nitrogen to ammonia

Codes:

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	1	2	3	4
(B)	2	1	4	3
(C)	3	4	2	1
(D)	4	1	2	3

 

The following proteins are involved in protein synthesis on ribosomes 1) EF-TU 2) RF1 3) RRF 4) EF-G 5) 1F2 What is the sequence of their involvent in the translation process ?                         

Choose the correct sequence of the following tools applied in proteomic I) MALDI—TOF II) IEE III) SDS-PAGE IV) Isolation of proteins                          

Five proteins with the following PI values were separated by isoelectric focusing 1) 3.6 2) 2.9 3) 7.2 4) 6.5 5) 8.5 What is the order of their migration from the anode (closest to farthest)?                         

Match the following:

I) Somaclonal variation	1) Anther culture
II) Haploid culture	2) Suspension culture
III) Protoplast isolation	3) Callus culture
IV) Secondary metabolite Production	4) Cell wall degrading enzymes

    

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	2	3	4	1
(B)	4	1	2	3
(C)	3	2	1	4
(D)	3	1	4	2

 

Match the items of Column — A with Column — B

Column—A	Column—B
I) Plasma Membrane	1) DNA polymerase
II) Nucleus	2) 5’ Nucleotidase
III) Mitochondria	3) Catalase and peroxidase
IV) Microbodies	4) SDH

   

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	2	1	4	3
(B)	1	2	3	4
(C)	4	3	2	1
(D)	3	4	1	2

 

Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly?                  

Match the following

I) Allosteric enzyme	1) PDC
II) Isoenzyme	2) Acetyl CoA
III) Multienzyme complex	3) LDH
IV) Coenzyme	4) ATcase

    

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	1	4	3	2
(B)	4	3	1	2
(C)	3	1	4	2
(D)	2	4	3	1

 

Which of the following pairs is matched correctly?                        

Which of the following pairs is not paired correctly?                        

Given below are two statements Assertion (A): Aminoacylation of t RNA is a very accurate process. Reason (R): Proof reading does not occur during aminoacylation of t RNA by aminoacyl tRNA synthetases. Which of these statements are true?                            

Given below are two statements Assertion (A): Lac operon is activated in bacteria by the presence of lactose in the medium. Reason (R): Lac operon is not affected by glucose concentration in the medium. Which of these statements are true?                         

Assertion (A): A. Monellin is a sweetner and it is a protein. When it is heated its sweetness is lost Reason (R): The reason for its sweetness lies in its confirmation                           

In a flower odd sepal is anterior, petals arranged in dessendingly imbricate aestivation. This flowers belong to the family                  

Taxonomy refers to I) Identification and Nomenclature II) Nomenclature and classification III) Classification IV) Classification and evolution             

Assertion (A): Based on formation of mucilage due to partial dissolution of outer pectin wall in water, spirogyra is also called pond silk. Reason (R): In a matured cell of Spirogyra the cytoplasm is peripheral with a central vacuole                    

Match the following:

1) Engler	I) Chemosystematics
2) Secondary metabolite	II) Oak
3) Natural system	III) Embryophyta siphanogama
4) Nut	IV) Alpha taxonomy
	V) Marigold

   

	1	2	3	4
(A)	IV	I	III	V
(B)	III	I	IV	V
(C)	IV	I	III	II
(D)	III	I	IV	II

 

Indicate the four correct statements from the following: I) Cotton is used either alone or in combination with other fibres in manufacturing all types of textiles II) Cotton seed oil is used as lubricant and the oil cake is used as poultry feed III) Mercerised cotton is resulted by treating the cotton fibres with caustic soda IV) The fuzz (short hairs) is used in preparation of pillows, cushions and mattresses V) Cotton treated with nitric acid to produce gun powder, which is used in making explosives             

The system of classification proposed by these scientists is also called as Neo-Adansonian system                                  

Pick up the wrong statement from the following:                      

The several stages of hydrosere along with their suitable examples are given. Indicate the correct matches from them. I) Plank stage — Diatoms II) Woodland stage — Juncus III) Floating stage — Nymphaea IV) Submerged stage — Hydrilla V) Reed swamp stage — Sagittaria                     

Addition of consortium or cocktail of micro-organisms to the polluted soil is known as                    

Match the following:

1) Littoral and swamp forests	I) Savannas
2) Montane wet temperate forests	II) Mangroves
3) Natural grasslands	III) Relics
4) Species show a restricted distribution but cover large areas in course of time	IV) Sholas
	V) Progressive endemics

   

	1	2	3	4
(A)	II	IV	I	V
(B)	II	IV	I	III
(C)	IV	III	I	V
(D)	IV	II	I	III

 

The study of migration of birds is known as                     

Assertion (A): The Japanese and Philippine lakes are volcanic lakes in which the extreme chemical conditions are seen. Reason (R): Acid or alkaline lakes associated with volcanic regions are called volcanic lakes.                 

If the fertilized egg of a plant has 40 chromo-mes, the number of chromosomes present in the pollen mother cell is              

The female gametophyte of a typical dicot (polygonum) at the time of fertilization is                         

Assertion (A): In cleodic egg, the development of embryo is arrested in freshly laid eggs Reason (R): Freshly laid eggs show drop in temperature so they need incubation                      

Match the pattern of embryonic cleavage type (in List 1) with organisms (in List 2)

List—1	List—2
I) Radial cleavage	1) Echinoderms
II) Spiral cleavage	2) Tunicates
III) Bilateral cleavage	3) Mammals
IV) Rotational cleavage	4) Annelids

Code:

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	1	2	3	4
(B)	3	2	1	4
(C)	4	3	1	2
(D)	1	4	2	3

 

During differentiation different cell types make different sets of proteins at several levels in following sequences I) Differential gene transcription II) Differential RNA translation III) Differential RNA processing IV) Differential protein modification                  

If the deleterious effect of a mutation in a gene are overcome by a mutation in another gene, the process is called                      

Extra chromosomal inheritance of male sterility was discovered in maize by               

Assertion (A): Mental and motor retardation and death by ages 2-4 years are phenotypic effects in the individuals of Tay-Sachs disease. Reason (R): In the individuals of Tay-Sachs disease galactose-1 -phosphate uridyl transferase fails to catalyze transformation of galactose into glucose.                     

Assertion (A): Adapted characters acquired by an organism are not inherited. Reason (R): They do not get the sufficient time to be fixed at the genetic level.                    

Assertion (A): Geological evidence indicates that free oxygen began accumulating in the atmosphere about two billion years ago. Reason (R): The free oxygen in the atmosphere is produced by cyanobacteria like forms.                   

Assertion (A): The records of evolution of birds is sketchy. Reason (R): The pneumatic bones of birds make poor fossils.                     

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

List—I (Animals)	List—II (Their realm)
I) Protopterus	1) Australian
II) Opossum	2) Ethiopian
III) Sphenodon	3) Nearctic
IV) Prehensile tailed monkey	4) Neotropical

Code:

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	2	3	1	4
(B)	2	1	3	4
(C)	4	1	3	2
(D)	4	3	1	2

 

According to Darwinism which one represents the correct sequence of events in the origin of new species? I) Natural selection, Variation and their inheritance-Survival of the fittest, Struggle for existence II) Variation and their inheritance, Survival of the fittest, Natural selection, struggle for existence III) Survival of the fittest, Struggle for existence, Natural selection, Variation and their inheritance IV) Struggle for existence, Variation and their inheritance, Survival of the fittest, Natural selection The correct sequence of these scales from the earliest to the most recent                 

Enterokinase stimulates                     

In the detoxification of ammonia, the key intermediate product i.e., the synthesis of citrulline is appeared to be present in the following extra hepatic tissues I) Brain II) Intestine III) Kidney IV) Lungs