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UPSEE Mock Test – Question Answers

UPSEE 2016 (Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Examination)

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UPSEE Engineering Test MCQ Questions Answers for the admission in B.tech: This mock test having 25 question each, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this UPSEE Engineering Test question are available for Physics and Chemistry details at the end of the quiz. You can also download  UPSEE Previous Year Question Papers.



UPSEE 2017 – upsee.nic.in – Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Examination 2016 questions answers are applicable for any kind of engineering entrance exam examination. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers UPSEE Engineering Test critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking UPSEE level exam.

UPSEE Chemistry Mock Test - Question Answers

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Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
At equilibrium in a reversible reaction the catalyst     
A
increases the rate of forward direction
B
increases the rate of backward direction
C
increases the rate of forward and backward direction equally
D
None of the above
Question 2
The process of conversion of higher hydrocarbon to lower hydrocarbon is called     
A
isomerisation
B
cracking
C
hydroformation
D
mining
Question 3
Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to give following compound   
A
formalin
B
formaldehyde ammonia
C
hexamethylene tetraamine
D
formamide
Question 4
Which of the following characteristics does not show by d-block elements?    
A
Variable valency
B
Formation to complex compound
C
Diamagnetism
D
Paramagnetism
Question 5
For precipitation    
A
Solubility product = ionic product
B
Solubility product > ionic product
C
Solubility product < ionic product
D
None of the above
Question 6
In froth floatation method of ore concentration, ore particles rise to the surface because    
A
they are light
B
these are insoluble
C
their surface do not wet with water easily
D
these contain electric charge
Question 7
Alkaline hydrolysis of a ester is called     
A
hydrolysis
B
saponification
C
neutralization
D
hydrogenation
Question 8
The number of r  electrons present in a aromatic ring are     
A
(4+ 2)n
B
(4+ 2n)
C
(4n + 2)
D
None of these
Question 9
The correct radius order of atom, its cation and anion is    
A
atom anion
B
atom > cation
C
atom = cation = anion
D
atom > cation > anion
Question 10
Saturated hydrocarbon gives    
A
free radical substitution
B
free radical addition
C
electrophilic substitution
D
electrophilic addition
Question 11
Ethanal forms 3-hydroxy butanal on reaction with alkali. This reaction is    
A
Claisen condensation
B
Polymerization
C
Aldol condensation
D
Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Question 12
Absolute alcohol can obtained from absolute spirit by which process    
A
steam distillation
B
fractional distillation
C
azerotropic distillation
D
hydrolysis
Question 13
Ethyl alcohol is obtained from sugar by following enzyme reaction   
A
invertase
B
zymase
C
maltase
D
diastase
Question 14
Brass is a     
A
alloy
B
transition metal
C
non-metal
D
element
Question 15
Which of the following statements is true for enzymes? I. Enzymes do not have nucleophilic groups. II. Enzymes are specific in joining with chiral molecules and catalyse their reaction. III. Enzyme catalysis the chemical reactions by decreasing the activation energy. IV. Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme.   
A
I
B
I and IV
C
I and III
D
II. Ill and IV
Question 16
Identify the correct statement.     
A
Plaster of Paris is obtained by the partial oxidation of gypsum.
B
The percentage of plaster of calcium in gypsum is less than plaster of Paris.
C
Gypsum is obtained by the plaster of Paris on heating.
D
Plaster of Paris is obtained by the addition of water in gypsum.
Question 17
The electronic configuration of a element is 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p3.What is the atomic number of element which is below exactly this element in the Periodic Table?    
A
49
B
31
C
34
D
33
Question 18
Ideal gas which obeys the molecular kinetic theory of gases can be liquified. If    
A
it cannot be liquified at any pressure and temperature.
B
its pressure is greater than pc at less temperature from T.
C
its temperature is greater than critical temperature Tc .
D
its pressure is greater than critical pressure.
Question 19
The oxidation of glucose in living cell is a important reaction. What are number of  ATP molecules which are produced by molecules  of glucose in cells?   
A
28
B
38
C
12
D
18
Question 20
A chemical reaction is catalysed by catalyst X. Hence, X    
A
increases the activation energy of reaction.
B
does not effect the equilibrium constant of reaction.
C
decreases the velocity constant of reaction.
D
decreases the enthalpy of reaction.
Question 21
The formation of bakelite takes place between the reaction of   
A
phenol and formaldehyde
B
ethylene glycol and dimethyl terephthalate
C
urea and formaldehyde
D
tetramethylene glycol and hexa methylene diisocynate
Question 22
Aluminium(111) chloride forms a dimer because    
A
the ionisation energy of aluminium is high.
B
it cannot form trimer.
C
high coordination number can obtain by aluminium
D
aluminium belongs to third group.
Question 23
The solubility of AgCI will be minimum in which of the following?     
A
0.01 M NaCI
B
0.01 MCaCI2
C
pure water
D
0.001 M AgNO3
Question 24
 Mercury is the only metal which is liquid at 0°C because    
A
high vapour pressure
B
high ionisation energy and weak metallic bond
C
low ionisation potential
D
high atomic weight
Question 25
The pH does not change on the addition of some amount of acid or base in the blood, because blood      
A
becomes coagulate easily
B
has serum protein which acts as buffer
C
is liquid of body
D
has iron in the form a part of molecule
Question 26
The half-life of C14 radioactive is 5760 yr. After how much time will 200 mg C14 sample be reduced to 25 mg?     
A
23040 yr
B
17280 yr
C
11520 yr
D
5760 yr
Question 27
When benzene diazonium chloride solution is boilded it yields     
A
benzene
B
phenol
C
aniline
D
chlorobenzene
Question 28
According to Raoult’s law the relative lowering in vapour pressure of a solution is equal to    
A
moles of solute
B
mole fraction of solvent
C
moles of solvent
D
mole fraction of solute
Question 29
In ideal condition, the number of moles of oxygen in 1 L air which has 21% oxygen according to volume       
A
2.10 mol
B
0.0093 mol
C
0.186 mol
D
0.210 mol
Question 30
The increasing acidity order of phenol, p-methyl phenol. m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol is    
A
phenol, p-methyl phenol, p-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol
B
p-methyl phenol, phenol, m-nitrophenol, p-nitrophenol
C
p-methylphenol, m -nitrophenol, phenol, p-nitrophenol
D
m-nitrophenol, p-nitrophenol, phenol, p-methylphenol
Question 31
The molecule of BCI3 is planar while the molecule of NCI3 is pyramidal because    
A
N—Cl bond is more covalent than B—Cl bond
B
the atom of nitrogen is smaller than boron
C
B—Cl bond is more polar than N—Cl bond
D
in BCI3 unpaired electron pair is not present while in NC13 a unpaired electron pair is present.
Question 32
The concentration unit will independent from temperature   
A
weight volume percentage
B
molarity
C
normality
D
molality
Question 33
pH of 10 M HCI solution is     
A
1
B
0
C
2
D
less than zero
Question 34
The number of geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH3)2C12]are     
A
3
B
4
C
2
D
1
Question 35
Maximum explosive is     
A
NCI3
B
PCI3
C
AsCI3
D
All of these
Question 36
The purest form of iron is      
A
white cast iron
B
grey cast iron
C
wrought iron
D
steel
Question 37
Ethyl amine reacts with nitrous acid to give     
A
ethyl nitrite
B
ethyl alcohol
C
nitro ethane
D
acetic acid
Question 38
What is the stoichiometry coefficient of Ca in the following reaction? Ca+AI3+ ------Ca2+Al    
A
2
B
1
C
3
D
4
Question 39
What is the value of x in the potash alum K2S04. Alx (SO4)3 .24H2O?    
A
4
B
1
C
2
D
Non of these
Question 40
Ozone is useful in the purification of water because    
A
it releases oxygen on dissociation
B
it does not give unpleasant smell like chlorine
C
it acts as bactericide and destroys the bacteria, fungi etc
D
All of the above
Question 41
Internal energy is the sum of    
A
kinetic energy and potential energy
B
all types of energy of system
C
energies of internal system
D
None of the above
Question 42
In the presence of Fe/HC1, aniline obtains from which of the following?      
A
Benzene
B
Nitrobenzene
C
Dinitrobenzene
D
None of these
Question 43
Which of the following is a strong base?     
A
Benzamide
B
Butanamine
C
Nitrobenzene
D
Benzene
Question 44
On comparison of S and S2-,the S2- has     
A
large radius and large size
B
small radius and large size
C
large radius and small size
D
small radius and small size
Question 45
Which of the following is the second most electronegative element?     
A
Oxygen
B
Nitrogen
C
Fluorine
D
Sulphur
Question 46
Which of the following has the lowest ionization potential?      
A
Oxygen
B
Nitrogen
C
Fluorine
D
Sulphur
Question 47
If the diffusion rate of NH3 is double of X, then the molecular weight of X will be     
A
68
B
48
C
12
D
8
Question 48
The bond order of C—C bond of benzene.     
A
1
B
2
C
between 1 and 2
D
None of these
Question 49
The decreasing order of bond length of following (A), Ethane (B) Ethene (C) Ethyne      
A
A>B>C
B
B>A>C
C
C>B>A
D
C>A>B
Question 50
 What is the range of the size of colloidal particle?     
A
1 to 100 nm
B
1 to 1000 cm
C
1 to 1000 mm
D
1 to 100 km
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UPSEE Physics Mock Test - Question Answers

Congratulations - you have completed UPSEE Physics Mock Test - Question Answers .You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The unit of surface tension is    
A
N/C
B
N/m
C
C/N
D
m/N
Question 2
The acceleration a of moving body from rest is 2 (t — 1). Then, the velocity at 5 s will be    
A
15 m/s
B
25m/s
C
35m/s
D
45m/s
Question 3
At which of the following positions, the acceleration of the particle in SUM will be maximum?    
A
At mean position
B
At peak position
C
At half position of amplitude
D
None of the above
Question 4
The momenta of two particles of masses m and 2m are 2p and p respectively. The ratio of their kinetic energies will be    
A
2:1
B
4:1
C
1:8
D
8:1
Question 5
If the escape velocity at the earth is 11.2 km/s, then what will be the escape velocity of planet having mass 4 times of earth and gravitational acceleration equal to earth?     
A
7.9 m/s
B
11.2 km/s
C
15.7 km/s
D
None of these
Question 6
If the range and time period of projectile are related to R = 5T2, then the angle of projection will be     
A
r/2
B
r/3
C
r/4
D
r/6
Question 7
The two particles A and B remain at rest position. Both of them due to their attraction forces move towards each other. At any instant the velocity of A is v. At that instant velocity of B is 2v. The velocity of centre- of mass of the system will be      
A
v
B
zero
C
1.5v
D
3v
Question 8
A hollow cylinder and a solid cylinder having same mass and diameter are rolled at inclined plane, then which will reach first at the bottom?    
A
Both at same time
B
Hollow cylinder
C
Solid cylinder
D
Which has more density
Question 9
A player takes a complete round in path of radius R in 40 s. After 2 min 20 S, its displacement will be      
A
zero
B
2R
C
Z r R
D
7 r R
Question 10
The minimum distance of reflected surface from the source for listening the echo of sound is     
A
28m
B
18m
C
19 m
D
16.5 m
Question 11
Two sound waves of wavelengths 5 m and 6 m formed 30 beats in 3 s. The velocity of sound is     
A
300 m/s
B
310 m/s
C
320 m/s
D
330 m/s
Question 12
Two waves are in phase when    
A
amplitude is same
B
wavelength is same
C
amplitude and wavelength are same
D
phase difference remains constant
Question 13
Newton’s law of cooling derived by    
A
Stefan’s law
B
Kirchhoffs law
C
Wien’s displacement law
D
None of the above
Question 14
Which of the following laws explains the spectrum of black body?     
A
Rayleigh - Jeans’s law
B
Planck’s law
C
Wien’s displacement law
D
Stefan’s law
Question 15
According to Kirchhoffs law the algebraic sum of currents meeting at a junction is     
A
limited
B
zero
C
infinite
D
None of these
Question 16
If a container filled by the ideal gas keeps in the moving car, the temperature of the gas     
A
will be increased
B
will be decreased
C
will remain unchanged
D
None of the above
Question 17
The number of turns of primary and secondary coils of transformer are 500 and 5000 respectively. The voltage and frequency of primary coil are 800 V and 50 Hz respectively, then the frequency and voltage of secondary coil will be     
A
50 Hz, 8000 V
B
800 Hz, 800 V
C
5OHz,80V
D
SOHz,800V
Question 18
If an ideal gas filled in a closed container and the container is open in vacuum, then its temperature will be     
A
increased
B
decreased
C
unchanged
D
None of these
Question 19
1 cm 3 water at 1 atm pressure and 1000C converts into 1671 cm3 steam by taking 54 cal heat. The work done (in cal) during this process will be     
A
400
B
40
C
540
D
None of these
Question 20
The nature of bond in diamond is     
A
ionic
B
covalent
C
van der Waals,
D
metallic
Question 21
Which of the following experiments does represent the wave nature of electrons?     
A
Davisson- Germer
B
de-Broglie
C
Rutherford
D
Millikan oil drop
Question 22
The temperature of star is 6060 K and maximum radiation emitted at 4653 A. For another star, the maximum radiation emitted at 4545 A. The temperature of another star will be     
A
300 K
B
6204 K
C
3000 K
D
120 K
Question 23
A body is walking away from a wall towards an observer at a speed of 2 m/s and blows a whistle whose frequency is 680 Hz. The number of beats heard by the observed per second is (velocity of sound in air = 340 m/s)    
A
zero
B
2
C
8
D
4
Question 24
For uranium nucleus, the value of nucleon binding energy will be     
A
7.6eV
B
7.6 u eV
C
7.6 MeV
D
7.6 keV
Question 25
By which of the following the nucleus can’t be cleaved?     
A
a -ray
B
y -ray
C
B -ray
D
Laser
Question 26
Which of the following is not semiconductor?     
A
Si
B
Ge
C
NaCl
D
Cds
Question 27
For good emissive should be    
A
small work function and small melting point
B
small work function and high melting point
C
high work function and high melting point
D
high work function and small melting point
Question 28
The retarding potential for having zero photo-electron current    
A
is proportional to the wavelength of incident light
B
increases uniformly with the increase in the wavelength of incident light
C
is proportional to the frequency of incident light
D
increases uniformly with the increase in the frequency of incident light wave
Question 29
From molecular theory of gas which of the following quantities at certainly for all gases will be same?     
A
Momentum
B
Kinetic energy
C
Velocity
D
Mass
Question 30
Which of the following instruments depends upon the coil which rotates in the magnetic field?     
A
Electric motor
B
Dynamo
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of these
Question 31
The principle of dynamo is     
A
electromagnetic induction
B
magnetic induction
C
electric induction
D
None of the above
Question 32
The potential of illuminate cathode, grid and plate of triode valve are 0, -3 and 80 V respectively. An electron moves with the kinetic energy of 5eV from the surface of cathode. On reaching the grid, the kinetic energy of electron will be     
A
15 eV
B
2 eV
C
85 eV
D
30 eV
Question 33
In photo-electric experiment, for incident light of 4000 A the stopping potential is 2 V. If the value of incident light is changed to 3000 A, the stopping potential will be      
A
2 V
B
less than 2 V
C
zero
D
more than 2 V
Question 34
The root mean square velocity and density of ideal gas are 1840 m/s and 0.8 kg/m3 respectively. Its pressure will be      
A
9.02 x 105 N/m2
B
0.02 x 104 N/m2
C
9.02 x 103 N/m2
D
9.02 x 106 N/m2
Question 35
800 identical water drops are combined to form a big drop. Then, the ratio of the final surface energy to the initial surface energy of all the drops together is     
A
1:10
B
1:15
C
1:20
D
1:25
Question 36
Three light bulbs of 100 W, 200 W and 40 W are connected in series with 200 V source. The current will be    
A
maximum in bulb of 100 W
B
maximum in bulb of 200 W
C
maximum in bulb of 40 W
D
equal in all
Question 37
One mole (y- = 5/3) of monoatomic gas mixture and the one mole of diatomic gas (y = 7/5]. For mixtured the value of y will be     
A
1.40
B
1.50
C
1.53
D
3.07
Question 38
short circuited coil is placed in magnetic field at any time. Power loss in coil occurs due to generated induced current. If number of turns becomes 4 times and radius of wire becomes half, then the loss of electric power will be     
A
half
B
equal
C
two times
D
four times
Question 39
The gravitational force between the point masses m and M is F. Now if an another point mass 2m placed in front and touch of m, then force on M due to m and total force on M will be   
A
2F, F
B
F, 2F
C
F, 3F
D
F, F
Question 40
Beat is listened by two sound sources of same amplitude and same frequency. Intensity of sound of maximum beat as compare to the intensity of any source will be    
A
equal
B
two times
C
four times
D
eight times
Question 41
 The equation of wave is y =0.5 sin (101 + x], This is moving along x-axis. Its velocity is    
A
10 m/s
B
20 m/s
C
5 m/s
D
None of these
Question 42
A particle moves with constant speed in circular path. During the motion its    
A
velocity is constant
B
acceleration is constant
C
radial acceleration towards the inside
D
radial acceleration towards the outside
Question 43
Which one of the following is scalar?     
A
Electric potential
B
Momentum
C
Velocity
D
Force
Question 44
If total torque of the system is zero, then the total angular momentum of the system will be constant at     
A
direction
B
both direction and magnitude
C
magnitude
D
None of the above
Question 45
The equation of progressive wave is y = a sin (200 (200 t – x], where x is in metre and x is in second. The velocity of wave will be    
A
200 m/s
B
100 m/s
C
50 m/s
D
None of these
Question 46
According to Newton’s third law, which of the following statements is true?    
A
Both forces are acted upon one body
B
Both forces are acted upon the different bodies
C
Directions and magnitudes of both forces are same
D
Both forces have different magnitudes and opposite directions
Question 47
If the length and radius of wire are doubled then Young’s modulus of the wire will be    
A
doubled
B
half
C
constant
D
None of these
Question 48
What is the true of following in an elastic collision?     
A
The kinetic energy will be conservative
B
The momentum will be conservative
C
Both kinetic energy and momentum will be conservative
D
None of the above
Question 49
If the speed of particle became twice, then which of the following quantities will be doubled?     
A
Length
B
Kinetic energy
C
Momentum
D
Acceleration
Question 50
If in the lift, the body of mass 5 kg is suspended to spring balance, the lift moves downward with acceleration 10 m/s2, then the reading of spring balance is     
A
more than 5 kg-wt
B
less than 5 kg-wt
C
5kg-wt
D
zero
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