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VITEEE Online Mock Test

Vellore Institute of Technology Engineering Entrance Examination: VITEEE Online Mock Test

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VIT Engineering Test MCQ Questions Answers for the admission in B.tech: This mock test having 25 question each, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this VITEEE question are available for Physics and Chemistry details at the end of the quiz. You can also download VITEEE Previous Year Question Papers.



This Vellore Institute of Technology Engineering Entrance Examination VITEEE 2017 questions answers are applicable for any kind of engineering entrance exam examination. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers VIT Engineering Test critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking VITEEE level exam.

VITEEE Online Mock Test = Physics

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Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The half-life of a radioactive element is 3.8 days. The fraction left after 19 days will be:
A
0.124
B
0.062
C
0.093
D
0.031
Question 2
The temperature coefficient of a zener mechanism is:
A
negative
B
positive
C
infinity
D
zero
Question 3
Radar waves are sent towards a moving aeroplane and the reflected waves are received. When the aeroplane is moving towards the radar, the wavelength of the wave:
A
decreases
B
increases
C
remains the same
D
sometimes increases or decreases.
Question 4
The output stage of a television transmitter is most likely 10 be a:
A
plate- modulated class C amplifier
B
grid- modulated class C amplifier
C
screen- modulated class C amplifier
D
grid- modulated class A amplifier
Question 5
The antenna current of an AM transmitter is 8 A when only the carrier is sent, but it increases to 8.93 A when the carrier is modulated by a single sine wave. Find the percentage modulation.
A
60.1%
B
70.1%
C
80.1%
D
50.1%
Question 6
A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 100 pF is to be constructed by using paper sheets of 1 mm thickness as dielectric. If the dielectric constant of paper is 4, the number of circular metal foils of diameter 2 cm each required for the purpose is:
A
40
B
20
C
30
D
10
Question 7
The electric field intensity E, due to an electric dipolc of momcnt P, at a point on thc cquatorial
A
parallel to the axis of the dipole and opposite to the direction of the dipole moment P
B
perpendicular to the axis of the dipole and is directed away from it
C
parallel to the dipole moment
D
perpendicular to the axis of the dipole and is directed towards it
Question 8
The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is 0.00125 / K. At 300 K, its resistance is 1(2. The resistance of the wire will be 2 0 at:
A
1154 K
B
1100 K
C
1400 K
D
1127 K
Question 9
A voltage of peak value 283 V and varying frequency is applied to a series L-C-R combination in which R = 3, L = 25 mH and C = 400p F. The frequency (in Hz) of the source at which maximum power is dissipated in the above, is:
A
51.5
B
50.7
C
51.1
D
50.3
Question 10
In Young’s double slit experiment, the interference pattern is found to have an intensity ratio between bright and dark fringes is 9. This implies that:
A
the intensities at the screen due to two slits are 5 units and 4 units respectively
B
the intensities at the screen due to the two slits are 4 units and 1 units, respectively
C
the amplitude ratio is 7
D
the amplitude ratio is 6
Question 11
Rising and setting sun appears to be reddish because:
A
diffraction sends red rays to earth at these times
B
scattering due to dust panicles and air molecules are responsible
C
refraction is responsible
D
polarization is responsible
Question 12
Indicate which one of the following statements is not correct?
A
Intensities of reflections from different crystallographic planes are equal
B
According to Bragg’s law higher order of reflections have high 9 values for a given wavelength of radiation
C
For a given wavelength of radiation, there is a smallest distance between the crystallographic planes which can be determined
D
Bragg’s law may predict a reflection from a crystallographic plane to be present but it may be absent due to the crystal symmetry
Question 13
Assuming f to be frequency of first line in Burner series, the frequency of the immediate next (i.e., second) line is:
A
0.50 f
B
1.35 f
C
2.05 f
D
2.70 f
Question 14
Two electrons re moving in opposite direction with speeds 0.8 c and 0.4 c, where c is the speed of light in vacuum. Then the relative speed is about:
A
0.4 c
B
0.8 c
C
0.9c
D
1.2c
Question 15
A photo-sensitive material would emit electrons, if excited by photons beyond a threshold. To overcome the threshold, one would increase the:
A
voltage applied to the light source
B
intensity of light
C
wavelength of light
D
frequency of light
Question 16
The radius of nucleus is:
A
proportional to Its mass number
B
inversely proportional to its mass number
C
proportional to the cube root of its mass number
D
not related to its mass number
Question 17
Two beams of light will not give rise to an interference pattern, if
A
they are coherent
B
they have the same wavelength
C
they are linearly polarized perpendicular to each other
D
they are not monochromatic
Question 18
A slit of width is an illuminated with a monochromatic light of wavelength A from a distant source and the diffraction pattern is observed on a screen placed at a distance D from the slit. To increase the width of the central maximum one should
A
decrease D
B
decrease U
C
decrease A
D
The width cannot be changed
Question 19
A thin film of soap solution (n = 1.4) lIes on the top of a glass plate (n = 1.5). When visible light is incident almost normal to the plate, two adjacent reflection maxima are observed at two wavelengths 400 and 630 nm. The minimum thickness of the soap solution is
A
420 nm
B
450 nm
C
630 nm
D
1260 nm
Question 20
If the speed of a wave doubles as it passes from shallow water into deeper water, its wavelength will be
A
unchanged
B
halved
C
doubled
D
quadrupled
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VITEEE Online Mock Test = Chemistry

Congratulations - you have completed VITEEE Online Mock Test = Chemistry.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
An ion leaves its regular site occupy a position in the space between the lattice sites is called
A
Frenkel defect
B
Schottky defect
C
impurity defect
D
vacancy defect
Question 2
The 8: 8 type of packing is present in:
A
MgF2
B
CsCI
C
KCI
D
NaCI
Question 3
When a solid melts reversibly:
A
H decreases
B
G increases
C
E decreases
D
S increases
Question 4
Equivalent amounts of H2 and 12 are heated in a closed vessel till equilibrium is obtained. If 80% of the hydrogen can be converted to HI, the K at this temperature is:
A
64
B
16
C
0.25
D
4
Question 5
How long (in hours) must a current of 5.0 A be maintained to electroplate 60 g of calcium from molten CaCI2?
A
27 h
B
8.3 h
C
11 h
D
16h
Question 6
The epoxide ring consists of which of the following:
A
three membered ring with two carbon and one oxygen
B
four membered ring with three carbon and one oxygen
C
five membered ring with four carbon and one oxygen
D
six membered ring with five carbon and one oxygen
Question 7
In the Grignard reaction, which metal forms an organometallic bond?
A
Sodium
B
Titanium
C
Magnesium
D
Palladium
Question 8
Phenol is more acidic than:
A
p-chlorophenol
B
p-nitrophenol
C
onirrophenol
D
ethanol
Question 9
Aldol condensation is given by:
A
trimethylacetaldehyde
B
acetaldehyde
C
benzaldehyde
D
formaldehyde
Question 10
In which of the below reaction do we find a, -unsaturated carbonyl compounds undergoing a ring closure reaction with conjugated die nes?
A
Perkin reaction
B
Diels-Alder reaction
C
Claisen rearrangement
D
Rofmann reaction
Question 11
Identify, which of the below does not possess any Iement of symmetry?
A
(+ ) (—) tartaric acid
B
Carbon tetrachioride
C
Methane
D
Meso-tartaric acid
Question 12
Trans esteriuication is the process of:
A
conversion of an alipharic acid to ester
B
conversion of an aromatic acid to ester
C
conversion of one ester to another ester
D
conversion of an ester into its components namely acid and alcohol
Question 13
Carbylamine reaction is given by aliphatic:
A
primary amine
B
secondary amine
C
tertiary amine
D
quaternary ammonium salt
Question 14
Which of the following is hexadentate ligand?
A
Ethylene diamine
B
Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid
C
1, 10-phenanthroline
D
Acetyl acetonato
Question 15
A coordiante bond is a dative covalent bond. Which of the below is true?
A
Three atom form bond by sharing their electrons
B
Two atom form bond by sharing their electrons
C
Two atoms form bond and one of them provides both electrons
D
Two atoms form bond by sharing electrons obtained from third atom
Question 16
On an X-ray diffraction photograph the irnensity of the spots depends on:
A
neutron density of the atoms/ions
B
electron density of the atoms/ions
C
proton density of the atoms/ions
D
photon density of the atoms/ions
Question 17
AIkyl cyanides undergo Stephen reduction to produce
A
aldehyde
B
seondary a ine
C
primary amine
D
amide
Question 18
The continuous phase contains the dispersed phase throughout, example is
A
water in milk
B
fatin milk
C
water droplets in mist
D
oil in water
Question 19
Milk changes after digestion into
A
cellulose
B
fructose
C
glucose
D
lactose
Question 20
Which of the following set consists only of essential amino acids?
A
Alanine, tyrosine, cystine
B
Leucine, lysine, tryptophane
C
Alanine, glutamine, lycine
D
leucine, proline, glycine
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VITEEE Question Answers = Physics

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Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
An electron microscope is used to probe the atomic arrangements to a resolution of 5 A. What should be the electric potential to which the electrons need to be accelerated?
A
2.5V
B
5V
C
2.5 kV
D
5kV
Question 2
Which phenomenon best supports the theory that matter has a wave nature?
A
Electron momentum
B
Electron diffraction
C
Photon momentum
D
Photon diffraction
Question 3
When a solid with a band gap has a donor level just below its empty energy band, the solid is
A
an insulator
B
a conductor
C
p-type semiconductor
D
n-type semiconductor
Question 4
A Zener diode has a contact potential of 1 V in the absence of biasing. It undergoes Zener breakdown for an electric field of 10 V/rn at the depletion region of p-n junction. If the width of the depletion region is 2.5 11 rn, what should be the reverse biased potential for the Zener breakdown to occur?
A
3.5 V
B
2.5 V
C
1.5 V
D
0.5 V
Question 5
In Colpitt oscillator the feedback network consists of
A
two inductors and a capacitor
B
two capacitors and an inductor
C
three pairs of RC circuit
D
three pairs of RL circuit
Question 6
The reverse saturation of p-n diode
A
depends on doping concentrations
B
depends on diffusion lengths of carriers
C
depends on the doping concentrations and diffusion lengths
D
depends on the doping concentrations, diffusion length and device temperature
Question 7
A radio station has two channels. One is AM at 1020 kHz and the other FM at 89.5 MHz. For good results you will use
A
longer antenna for the AM channel and shorter for the FM
B
shorter antenna for the AM channel and longer for the FM
C
Same length antenna will work for both
D
Information given is not enough to say which one to use for which
Question 8
The communication using optical fibres is based on the principle of
A
total internal reflection
B
Brewster angle
C
polarization
D
resonance
Question 9
In nature, the electric charge of any system is always equal to
A
half integral multiple of the least amount of charge
B
zero
C
square of the least amount of charge
D
integral multiple of the least amount of charge.
Question 10
A cylindrical capacitor has charge Q and length 1. If both the charge and length of the capacitors are doubled, by keeping other parameters fixed, the energy stored in the capacitor
A
remains same
B
increases two times
C
decreases two times
D
increases four times
Question 11
The resistance of a metal increases with increasing temperature because
A
the collisions of the conducting electrons with the electrons increase
B
the collisions of the conducting electrons with the lattice consisting of the ions of the metal increase
C
the number of conduction electrons decrease
D
the number of conduction electrons increase
Question 12
In the absence of applied potential, the electric current flowing through a metallic wire is zero because
A
the electrons remain stationary
B
direction with a speed of the order of 1O2 cm/s
C
the electrons move in random direction with a speed of the order close to that of velocity of light
D
electrons and Ions move In opposite direction
Question 13
Identify the incorrect statement regarding a superconducting wire
A
transport current flows through its surface
B
transport current flows through the entire area of cross-section of the wire
C
it exhibits zero electrical resistivity and expels applied magnetic field
D
it is used to produce large magnetic field
Question 14
When a metallic plate swings between the poles of a magnet
A
no effect on the plate
B
eddy currents are set up inside the plate and the direction of the current is alone the motion of the plate
C
eddy currents are set up inside the plate and the direction of the current oppose the motion of the plate
D
eddy currents are set up inside the plate
Question 15
When an electrical appliance is switched on, it responds almost immediately, because
A
the electrons in the connecting wires move with the speed of light
B
the electrical signal is carried by electromagnetic waves moving with the speed of light
C
the electrons move with the speed which is close to but less than speed of light
D
the electrons are stagnant
Question 16
A transformer rated at 10 kW is used to connect a 5 kV transmission line to a 240 V circuit. The ratio of turns in the windings of the transformer is
A
5
B
20.8
C
104
D
40
Question 17
A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following statement is correct?
A
Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons
B
The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase
C
The angular width of the central maximum will decrease
D
The angular width of the central maximum will remains the same
Question 18
Two cylinders A and B fitted with pistons contain equal number of moles of an ideal monoatomic gas at 400 K. The piston of A is free to move while that of B is held fixed. Same amount of heat energy is given to the gas in each cylinder, If the rise in temperature of the gas in A is 42 K, the rise in temperature of the gas in B is
A
21K
B
35K
C
42K
D
70K
Question 19
Two identical piano wires have a fundamental frequency of 600 cycle per second when kept under the same tension. What fractional increase in the tension of one wires will lead to the occurrence of 6 beats per second when both wires vibrate simultaneously?
A
0.01
B
0.02
C
0.03
D
0.04
Question 20
The two lenses of an achromatic doublet should have
A
equal powers
B
equal dispersive powers
C
equal ratio of their power and dispersive power
D
sum of the product of their powers and dispersive power equal to zero
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VITEEE Question Answers = Chemistry

Congratulations - you have completed VITEEE Question Answers = Chemistry .You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which of the following is a ketohexose?
A
Glucose
B
Sucrose
C
Fructose
D
Ribose
Question 2
Reaction of PCI3 and PhMgBr would give
A
bromobenzene
B
chlorobenzene
C
triphenyiphosphine
D
dichlorobenzene
Question 3
Hair dyes contain
A
copper nitrate
B
gold chloride
C
silver nitrate
D
copper sulphate
Question 4
Schottky defects occurs mainly in electrovalent compounds where
A
positive ions and negative ions are of different size
B
positive ions and negative ions are of same size
C
positive ions are small and negative ions are big
D
positive ions are big and negative ions are small
Question 5
If a plot of log10 C versus t gives a straight line for a given reaction, then the reaction is
A
zero order
B
first order
C
second order
D
third order
Question 6
A spontaneous process is one in which the system suffers
A
no energy change
B
a lowering of free energy
C
a lowering of entropy
D
an increase in internal energy
Question 7
The electrochemical cell stops working after sometime because
A
electrode potential of both the electrodes becomes zero
B
electrode potential of both the electrodes becomes equal
C
one of the electrodes is eaten away
D
the cell reaction gets reversed
Question 8
The amount of electricity required to produce one mole of copper from copper sulphate solution will be
A
1 F
B
2.33 F
C
2 F
D
1.33 F
Question 9
Hydroboration oxidation of 4-methyl octene would give
A
4-methyl octanol
B
2-methyl decane
C
4-methyl heptanol
D
4-methyl-2-octanone
Question 10
Anisole is the product obtained from phenol by the reaction known as
A
coupling
B
etherification
C
oxidation
D
esterification
Question 11
Diamond is hard because
A
all the four valence electrons are bonded to each carbon atoms by covalent bonds
B
it is a giant molecule
C
it is made up of carbon atoms
D
it cannot be burnt
Question 12
A Wittig reaction with an aldehyde gives
A
ketone compound
B
a long chain fatty acid
C
olefin compound
D
epoxide
Question 13
Maleic acid and fumaric acid are
A
position isomers
B
geomet ic isomers
C
enantior.ers
D
functional isomers
Question 14
The gas evolved on heating alkali formate with soda-lime is
A
CO
B
CO2
C
hydrogen
D
water vapour
Question 15
One mole of alkene on ozonolysis gave one mole of acetaldehyde and one mole of acetone. The IUPAC name of X is
A
2-methyl-2-butene
B
2-methyl- I -butene
C
2-butene
D
1-butene
Question 16
The wavelengths of electron waves in two orbits is 3: 5. The ratio of kinetic energy of electrons will he
A
25:9
B
5:3
C
9:25
D
3:5
Question 17
The type of bonds present in sulphuric anhydnde are
A
3and three pr-dr
B
3 one pit-pit and two pr-dr
C
2 and three pr- dr
D
2and two pr-dr
Question 18
Dipole moment of HCI 1.03 D, HI = 0.38 D. Bond length of HCI =1.3A and HI =1.6 A. The ratio of fraction of electric charge, 8 existing on each atom in HCI and HI is
A
1:2:1
B
2.7:1
C
3.3:1
D
1:3.3
Question 19
1.5 g ofCdCl2 was found to contain 0.9 g of Cd. Calculate the atomic weight of Cd.
A
118
B
112
C
106.5
D
53.25
Question 20
How many ‘mL’ of perhydrol is required to produce sufficient oxygen which can be used to completely convert 2 L of SO2 to SO3 gas?
A
10mL
B
5mL
C
20mL
D
30mL
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