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WBJEE Online Mock Test

WBJEE Online Mock Test 2017 : West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination Practice Test 2016 also know as WBJEEM Question Answers for medical entrance and engineering exams subjects : Maths, Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology). This mock test having 25 questions in each subjects, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this WBJEE  test question details at the end of the quiz.

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WBJEE 2017 questions answers are applicable for any kind of medical entrance test (UG) , engineering entrance  and Pharmacy entrance preparation in India. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers WBJEE  critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking all India level exam.



For more resources you can go through WBJEE  Previous Year Question Papers Answers

WBJEE Online Mock Test - Biology

Congratulations - you have completed WBJEE Online Mock Test - Biology.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
A prokaryotic cell lacks:
A
nucleus
B
nuclear membrane
C
membrane bound organelles
D
all of the above
Question 2
Extranuclear inheritance is a consequence of the presence of genes in:
A
ER and mitochondria
B
lysosomes and ribosomes
C
ribosomes and chioroplast
D
mitochondria and chloroplasts
Question 3
 Vesicles of Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) are most likely on their way to:
A
plastids
B
I ysosomes
C
nucleolus
D
Golgi apparatus
Question 4
Lysosomes are the store house of:
A
ATP
B
sugar
C
proteins
D
hydrolytic enzymes
Question 5
lipids are insoluble in water, because lipid molecules are:
A
neutral
B
Zwitter ions
C
hydrophobic
D
hydrophilic
Question 6
Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?
A
Glycine
B
Alanine
C
Tyrosine
D
Asparagine
Question 7
Carbohydrates, ingested in the diet, are hydrolyzed by the enzyme:
A
pepsin
B
cellulose
C
a-amylase
D
glycosidase
Question 8
Stomach is the site of digestion mainly for:
A
fats
B
proteins
C
carbohydrates
D
all of these
Question 9
Which proteolytic enzyme induces lysis of fibrin during Hbrinolysis?
A
Fibrin
B
Thrombin
C
Plasmin
D
Platelet factor-VIl
Question 10
Which of the following enzymes is used to join bits of DNA?
A
Ligase
B
Primase
C
Endonuclease
D
DNA polymerase
Question 11
 All eukaryotic genes contain two kinds of base sequences. Which of the following plays role in protein synthesis?
A
Introns
B
Exons
C
Electrons
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 12
The genetic material of prokaryotic cell is called:
A
nucleus
B
nucleolus
C
nucleoid
D
centromere
Question 13
 In prokaryotes, the genetic material is:
A
linear DNA with histones
B
circular DNA with histones
C
linear DNA without histones
D
circular DNA without histones
Question 14
The direction of DNA replication is from:
A
amino acid end
B
3’ end towards 5’ end
C
5’ end towards 3’ end
D
amino terminus to carboxy terminus
Question 15
 In operon concept, regulator gene functions as:
A
represser
B
regulator
C
inhibitor
D
initiator
Question 16
The importance of meiosis lies in:
A
bringing discontinuous variations
B
addition in the number of chromosomes
C
reduction in the number of chromosomes
D
maintaining the number of chromosomes
Question 17
In mitotic cell division, the division of centromere and the division of chromatid occurs between:
A
ana phase and telophase
B
prophase and metaphase
C
telophase and interphase
D
anaphase and metaphase
Question 18
 In which stage of the first meiotic division, each chromosome undergoes longitudinal division to give rise to two sister chromarids?
A
Zygotene
B
Diplotene
C
Diakinesis
D
Pachytene
Question 19
Mirabilis jalapa is an example of:
A
complete dominance
B
supplementary gene
C
incomplete dominance
D
complementary gene
Question 20
Which of the following is dominant character according to Mendel?
A
Dwarf plant and yellow fruit
B
Terminal fruit and wrinkled seed
C
White testa and yellow pericarp
D
Green coloured fruit and rounded seed
Question 21
Lack of independent assortment of genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to:
A
repulsion
B
linkage
C
crossing-over
D
recombination
Question 22
When two mutations are located in the same functional unit or in different functional units then it is confirmed by:
A
test cross
B
back cross
C
reciprocal cross
D
complementat ion test
Question 23
Prototherians are the connecting links between:
A
amphibians and ayes
B
reptiles and mammals
C
fishes and amphibians
D
reptiles and amphibinas
Question 24
The pioneers in the field of ‘organic evolution’ are:
A
Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries, Malthus
B
Darwin, Hugo de Vries, Lamarck, Huxley
C
Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, Maithus, Hugo de Vries
D
Darwin, Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries
Question 25
Darwin finches are related to which of the following evidences?
A
Fossils
B
Embryology
C
Anatomy
D
Geographical distribution
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WBJEE Online Mock Test - Chemistry

Congratulations - you have completed WBJEE Online Mock Test - Chemistry .You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Cadmium rods are used for which purpose?
A
Emit electrons
B
Absorb neutrons
C
Emit neutrons
D
Absorb electrons
Question 2
Propionic acid and KOH reacts to produce which one of the following?
A
Potassium propionare
B
Propyl alcohol
C
Propionaldehyde
D
Does not react
Question 3
What is the effect of dilution on the equivalent conductance of Strong electrolyte?
A
Decrease on dilution
B
Remains unchanged
C
Increase on dilution
D
None of the above
Question 4
35.4 ml.. of HCI is required for the neutralization of a solution containing 0.275 g of sodium hydroxide. The normality of hydrochloric acid is?
A
0.97 N
B
0.142 N
C
0.194 N
D
0.244 N
Question 5
A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapour at its boiling point. On the average, the molecules in two phases have equal
A
inter- molecular forces
B
potential energy
C
kinetic energy
D
total energy
Question 6
Which one of the following pairs is obtained on heating ammonium dlchromate?
A
N2 and H2O
B
N and H20
C
NO2 and H
D
NO and NO2
Question 7
1 mole of photon, each of frequency 2500 s, would have approximately a total energy of
A
l erg
B
1J
C
1 eV
D
1 MeV
Question 8
Which relatiou
A
dG=Vdp-SdT
B
dE=pdV+TdS
C
dH=-Vdp+TdS
D
dG=Vdp+SdT
Question 9
The ease of dehydrohalogenation of ailcyl halide with alcoholic KOH is
A
3°<2°<1°
B
3°>2°>1°
C
3°<2°>1°
D
3>2°<1°
Question 10
When H2S gas is passed in a metal sulphate solution in presence of NH4OH, a white precipitate is produced. The metal is identified as:
A
Zn
B
Fe
C
Pb
D
Hg
Question 11
The pair of compound which cannot exists together in solution is
A
NaHCO3 and NaOH
B
Na2CO3 and NHCO3
C
Na2CO3 and NaOH
D
NaHCO3 and NaCl
Question 12
Which one of the following processes is used for the manufacture of calcium?
A
Reduction of CaO with carbon
B
Reduction of CaO with hydrogen
C
Electrolysis of a mixture ofanhydrousCaCl2 and KCI
D
Electrolysis of molten Ca (0H2)
Question 13
The time taken for 10% completion of a first order reaction is 20 mm. Then, for 19% completion, the reaction will take
A
40min
B
6Omin
C
30 mm
D
50 mm
Question 14
Explain why aniline is not as basic as ammonia?
A
0.59 V
B
0.00 V
C
— 0.59 V
D
— 0.059
Question 15
The correct order of decreasing acidity of nitrophenols will be
A
m -nitrophenol >p-nitrophenol> o-nitrophenol
B
o-nitrophenol> m-nitrophenol> p-nitrophenol
C
p-nitrophenol > m-nitrophenol> o.nitrophenoI
D
p-nitxophenol > o-nitrpheno1> m-nitrophenol
Question 16
The molecule having largest dipole moment among the following is:
A
CHI3
B
CH4
C
CHCI3
D
CC14
Question 17
Which has maximum number of atoms?
A
24gofC
B
56gofFe
C
26gofAI
D
108gofAg
Question 18
Fe(OH)3 can be separated from AI(OH)3 by the addition of
A
NaCI solution
B
dil. HCl solution
C
NaOH solution
D
NH4Cl and NH0H
Question 19
Which of the following will decrease the pH of a 50 mL solution of 0.01 M HC1?
A
Addition of 5 mL of 1 M HC1
B
Addition of 50 mL of 0.01 M HCI
C
Addition of 50 mL of 0.002 M HCI
D
Addition of Mg
Question 20
For a reversible chemical reaction where the forward process is exothermic, which of the following statements is correct?
A
The backward reaction has higher activation energy than the forward reaction
B
The backward and the forward processes have the same activation energy
C
The backward reaction has lower activation energy
D
No activation energy is requited at all since energy is liberated in the process
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WBJEE Online Mock Test - Physics

Congratulations - you have completed WBJEE Online Mock Test - Physics.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Two spherical bodies of mass M and SM and radii R and 2R respectively are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12 R. If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body just before collision, is:
A
1.SR
B
2.5R
C
4.5R
D
7.5R
Question 2
Acceleration due to gravity isg on the surface of the earth. Then the value of the acceleration due to gravity at a height of 32 km above earth’s surface is (Assume radius of earth to be 6400 km)
A
0.99 g
B
0.8 g
C
1.Olg
D
0.9g
Question 3
A pellet of mass 1 g is moving with an angular velocity of I tad/s along a circle of radius I m the centrifugal force is
A
0.1 dyne
B
1 dyne
C
10 dyne
D
100 dyne
Question 4
One kg of copper is drawn into a wire of 1 mm diameter and a wire of 2 mm diameter. The resistance of the two wires will be in the ratio
A
2:1
B
1:2
C
16:1
D
4:1
Question 5
 A piano-convex lens Cf =20 cm) is silvered at plane surface. Now focal length will be
A
20cm
B
40cm
C
30 cm
D
10 cm
Question 6
In an inelastic collision an electron excites a hydrogen atom from its ground state to a M-shell state. A second electron collides instantaneously with the excited hydrogen atom in the M-shell state and ionizes it. At least how much energy the second electron transfers to the atom in the M-shell state?
A
+ 3.4 eV
B
+1.5 1 eV
C
—3.4 eV
D
—1.51 eV
Question 7
 A satellite orbiting the earth In a circular orbit of radius R completes one revolution in 3h. If orbital radius of geostationary satellite is 36,000 km. orbital radius of earth is:
A
6000 km
B
9000km
C
12000 km
D
15000 km
Question 8
A piece of ice is floating in a jar containing water. When the ice melts, then the level of water
A
rises
B
falls
C
remains unchanged
D
rises or falls
Question 9
Two point objects of masses 1.5 g and 2.5 g respectively are at a distance of 16 cm apart, the centre of gravity is at a distance x from the objectofmass 1.5gwherexis
A
10cm
B
6cm
C
13cm
D
3cm
Question 10
An electrical cable having a resistance of 0211 delivers 10 kW at 200 V DC to a factory. What is the efficiency of transmission?
A
65%
B
75%
C
85%
D
95%
Question 11
The light beams of intensities in the ratio of 9 : I are allowed to interfere. What will be the ratio of the intensities of maxima and minima?
A
3:1
B
4:1
C
25:9
D
81:1
Question 12
 If a person can throw a stone to maximum height of h metre vertically, then the maximum distance through which it can be thrown horizontally by the same person is
A
2/h
B
h
C
2h
D
3h
Question 13
A wire can be broken byapplyingaloadof200 N. The force required to break another wire of the same length and same material, but double in diameter, is:
A
200N
B
400N
C
600N
D
800N
Question 14
 Band spectrum is also called
A
molecular spectrum
B
atomic spectrum
C
flash spectrum
D
line absorption spectrum
Question 15
 If the earth shrinks such that its mass does not change but radius decreases to one quarter of tts original value then one complete day will take
A
96 h
B
48h
C
6h
D
1.5 h
Question 16
To write the decimal number 37 in binary, how many binary digits are required?
A
5
B
6
C
7
D
4
Question 17
The ratio of magnetic field and magnetic moment at the centre of a current carrying circular loop is x. When both the current and radius is doubled the ratio will be
A
x/8
B
x/4
C
x/2
D
2x
Question 18
A cricket ball of mass 0.25 kg with speed 10 rn/s collides with a bat and returns with same speed Within 0.01 s. The force acted on bat is
A
25N
B
5ON
C
250 N
D
500 N
Question 19
A body floats in water with 400/o of its volume outside water. When the same body floats in an oil. 60% of its volume remains outside oil. The relative density of oil is
A
0.9
B
1.0
C
1.2
D
1.5
Question 20
Air inside a closed container is saturated with water vapour. The air pressure is p and the saturated vapour pressure of water is . If the mixture is compressed to one-half of its volume by maintaining temperature constant, the pressure becomes
A
2(p-i-p)
B
2p+ji
C
(p + ) /2
D
p + 2
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