AIPVT Online Mock Test – Question Answers

AIPVT 2017 Online Practice Test – All India Pre-Veterinary Entrance Test Online Mock Test.

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Mock Test Subjects

No. MCQs in Mock Test

Physics

20

Chemistry

40

Biology (Botany and Zoology)

50

Total Quiz Question

110

AIPVT Physcis Online Mock Test – Question Answers

AIPVT Physics Online Mock Test

Congratulations - you have completed AIPVT Physics Online Mock Test.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
An ideal black body at room temperature is thrown into a furnance. It is observed that:
A
it is the darkest body at all times
B
it cannot be distinguished at all times
C
initially it is the darkest body and later it becomes brightest
D
initially it is the darkest body and later It cannot be disnnguishcd
Question 2
In the motion of a rocket, physical quantity which is conserved is
A
angular momentum
B
linear momentum
C
force
D
work
Question 3
the  radius of curvature of concave mirror is 24 i and the ime is magnified by 1.5 times. The object distance is
A
2Ocm
B
8cm
C
l6an
D
24cm
Question 4
If temperature of the sun were to increase from T to 2T and its radius from R to 2 R, then how many times the radiant energy will be received on the earth?
A
4
B
16
C
32
D
64
Question 5
An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocity of 600 km/h arid at a height of 1960 m. When it is vertically above a point A on the ground a bomb is released from it. The bomb strikes the ground at point B. The distance AR is
A
1200km
B
0.33km
C
333.3 km
D
3.33 km
Question 6
Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction corresponds to the
A
law of conservation of charge
B
law of conservation of energy
C
law of conservation of momentum
D
Law of conservation of angular momentum
Question 7
According to first law of thermodynamics:
A
energy is conserved
B
mass is conserved
C
heat is constant in isothermal process
D
heat neither enters nor leaves system
Question 8
When a force is applied on a moving body, its motion is retarded. Then the work done is
A
positive
B
negative
C
zero
D
positive and negative
Question 9
A Si and a Ge diode has identical physical dimensions. The band gap in Si is larger than that in Ge. An identical reverse hiis is applied across the diodes
A
The reverse current in Ge I.; larger than that inSi
B
The reverse current in Si is larger than that inGe
C
The reverse current is identical in the two diodes
D
The reladve magnitude of the reverse currents cannot be determined from the given data only
Question 10
A plane mirror produces a magnification of:
A
zero
B
—1
C
+1
D
between 0 and +1
Question 11
Physical independence of force is a consequence of
A
third law of motion
B
second law of motion
C
first law of motion
D
all of these laws
Question 12
The binary number 10111 is equivalent to the decimal number
A
19
B
31
C
23
D
22
Question 13
If a flint lens glass of dispersive power 0.066 renders achromatic to a convex lens of crown glass of focal length 60 cm and dispersive power 0.033, then its focal length is:
A
-6Ocm
B
+6Ocm
C
—l2Ocm
D
+ 120cm
Question 14
The kinetic energy of a body becomes four times its initial value. The new momentum will
A
same as the initial value
B
twice the initial value
C
thrice the initial value
D
half of its initial value
Question 15
Two coherent light beams of intensity I and 41 are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are:
A
5I and I
B
5I and 3I
C
9 I and I
D
9 I and 3 I
Question 16
Moment of a couple is called
A
impulse
B
couple
C
torque
D
angular momentum
Question 17
If Young’s double slit experiment is performed in water instead of air, then:
A
no fringes would be seen
B
fringe width would decrease
C
fringe width would increase
D
fringe width would remain unchanged
Question 18
 The area under acceleration-time graph gives
A
distance travelled
B
change in acceleration
C
force acting
D
change in velocity
Question 19
A person uses spectacles of power + 2 D. He is suffering from:
A
myopia
B
presbyopia
C
astigmatism
D
hypermetropia
Question 20
The magnification produced by the objective lens and the eye lens of a compound microscope are 25 and 6 respectively. The magnification of this microscope is:
A
25
B
50
C
150
D
200
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AIPVT Chemistry Online Mock Test – Question Answers

AIPVT Biology Online Mock Test

Congratulations - you have completed AIPVT Biology Online Mock Test.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Bacterial mutants requiring special nutrients are known as:       
A
prototrophs
B
autotrophs
C
heterotrophs
D
auxotrophs
Question 2
Which of the following is not secreted by anterior pituitary ?      
A
Prolactin
B
FSH
C
Growth hormone
D
ADH
Question 3
Book lungs are respiratory organs of:     
A
Mollusca
B
Mammals
C
Arachnida
D
Annelida
Question 4
Cranial nerves numbering IV, V and VI are respectively:     
A
trochlear, trigeminal, abducens
B
trochlear, trigeminal, facial
C
auditory, facial, trochlear
D
auditory, trochlear, facial
Question 5
In ruminants cellulose digestion takes place by:      
A
bacteria
B
protozoans
C
virus
D
both (a) and (b)
Question 6
Which of the following organism is useful in degrading organic pollutants:     
A
Nitrosomonas
B
Chlomydomonas
C
Actinomycetes
D
Pseudomonas
Question 7
Organisms found in extreme temperature are:       
A
cyanobacteria
B
archaebacteria
C
fungi
D
eubacteria
Question 8
Which of the following are the characteristics of deuterosome?    
A
Spiral cleavage, blastopore becoming anus
B
Spiral cleavage, blastopore becoming mouth
C
Radial cleavage, blastopore becoming anus
D
Radial cleavage, blastopore becoming mouth
Question 9
Emulsification is the function of:     
A
bile
B
lipases
C
esterases
D
proteases
Question 10
Which of the following is a monocarpic plant?       
A
Bambusa
B
Sesamum
C
Lauandual
D
Pinus
Question 11
Cotton is:     
A
epidermal tissue system
B
vascular tissue system
C
meristematic tissue system
D
ground tissue-system
Question 12
Marine protozoans lack contractile vacuole because:     
A
osmoregulation is done by cell membrane
B
they are hypoosmotic to their environment
C
they are isotonic with their environment
D
their small body cannot accommodate it
Question 13
The maintenance of internal favourable conditions, by a self regulated mechanism causing changes in environment is:     
A
homeostasis
B
steady state
C
cyclosis
D
ecosystem
Question 14
Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny. This is:     
A
Pauling law
B
Hardy Weinberg law
C
Biogenetic law
D
Thomas law
Question 15
DNA strands:     
A
have quartenary structure like protein
B
are bonded by disulphide bonds
C
have some polarity
D
are antiparallel
Question 16
Endoplasmic reticulum is studied with:    
A
ribosomes
B
lysosomes
C
glyoxisomes
D
microsomes
Question 17
Heavy metals are detoxified in plants by:       
A
abscisic acid
B
alleopathins
C
phytochelatins
D
phytoalexins
Question 18
Which of the following is not derived from ectoderm?       
A
Inner ear
B
Middle ear
C
Optic nerve
D
Skin
Question 19
Predation and parasitism are which type of interactions:      
A
(+,+)
B
(+,0)
C
(-,-)
D
(+,-)
Question 20
Unwinding of DNA is done by:      
A
primase
B
exonuclease
C
helicase
D
ligase
Question 21
Plants require sulphur for:       
A
DNA replication
B
protein synthesis
C
synthesis of glucose
D
formation of ATP
Question 22
Fungi differ from other kingdom in being:      
A
unicellular
B
unicellular, consumers
C
multicellular, decomposers
D
multicellular, consumer
Question 23
Confusion technique involves the use of:      
A
juvenile hormone
B
pheromones
C
ecdysone
D
hormones
Question 24
A nonsense mutation results into:      
A
stoppage of transcription
B
change in protein structure
C
stoppage of protein synthesis
D
termination of polypeptide chain
Question 25
Bone marrow does not occur in:      
A
amphibians
B
birds
C
reptilia
D
apes
Question 26
Menstrual How occurs due to lack of      
A
progesterone
B
FSH
C
oxytocin
D
vasopressin
Question 27
In vegetative propagation of the tubers which of the following remain constant through generations?      
A
Morphology, vigour and disease resistance
B
Morphology only
C
Vigour only
D
Vigour and morphology only
Question 28
Which one caused mutation in animals?      
A
Change in habit
B
Change in Golgi body
C
Change in gene structure
D
Change in peroxysome
Question 29
Electron microscope was discovered by:      
A
M. Knoll and E Ruska
B
Robertson
C
Robert Hooke
D
Lehmann
Question 30
The stem of Equisetum is rough due to:       
A
spines
B
silica
C
sclerids
D
fibres
Question 31
Sinus venosus is present in:     
A
birds only
B
birds and mammals
C
reptiles and birds
D
fishes, amphibians and reptiles
Question 32
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Echinoderm?     
A
Endodermal skeletal system
B
Water vascular system
C
Bilateral symmetry
D
Free floating larval forms
Question 33
Funaria and Marchantia differ from each other because Funoria posses:      
A
ventral canal cell
B
foot
C
calyptra
D
protonema
Question 34
Ducts of Bellini are present in:      
A
medulla oblongata
B
liver
C
kidney
D
intestine
Question 35
Cow dung is appropriately used as:       
A
fuel
B
building material
C
medicine
D
manure
Question 36
Protein packaging is done by:     
A
Golgi apparatus
B
ribosomes
C
end oplasmic reticulum
D
nucleolus
Question 37
The shape of eye lens is changed by:       
A
pupil
B
iris
C
optic nerve
D
ciliary muscles
Question 38
Eutrophication is seen in:      
A
saline soil
B
agricultural land near thermal plant
C
lake
D
mountain
Question 39
Which of the following are viral and mosquito borne disease?     
A
Filariasis and typhus
B
Kala azar and diphtheria
C
Malaria and chagas disease
D
Yellow fever and dengue
Question 40
Chemofusion and dectrofusion are characteristic of:      
A
mutations
B
cloning
C
protoplast fusion
D
eugenics
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AIPVT Biology Online Mock Test – Question Answers

AIPVT Chemistry Online Mock Test

Congratulations - you have completed AIPVT Chemistry Online Mock Test.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which of the following reagent releases nitrogen, on reaction with ethyl amine?     
A
Nitrosyl chloride
B
Acetyl chloride
C
Carbon disulphide
D
Benzoyl chloride
Question 2
The density of ice is less than water because    
A
ice floats on water
B
the structure of ice is three dimensional with porous
C
H-bond does not present in icc
D
water is a polar solvent
Question 3
Which of the following is deposited as thin layer in galvanised iron?     
A
Aluminium
B
Zinc
C
Tin
D
White lead
Question 4
The value of energy will increase in sub-energy level    
A
on increasing the value of principal quantum number
B
on increasing the value of azimuthal quantum number
C
on increasing the value of both principal quantum number and azimuthal quantum number
D
on increasing the value of spin quantum number
Question 5
The outermost structure of an atom A is ns2, np3. This compound does not form AF5. Which of the following statement is false in the given reference?     
A
A is element of second period
B
d-electron is not in A
C
The value of n Is less than three
D
A cannot form tetrahedral compound
Question 6
Which forms on the reaction of propyne with dil.H2S04 in the presence of mercuric ion?     
A
2-propanol
B
Propanone
C
Propanal
D
1, 2-propane diol
Question 7
Which alkene forms only ethanal on ozonolysis?     
A
1-butene
B
2-butene
C
Propene
D
Iso-butylene
Question 8
The colour of methyl orange in basic medium is     
A
red
B
colourless
C
yellow
D
orange
Question 9
The density of Na is higher than K because    
A
ionisation potential of Na is greater than K
B
size of Na is smaller than K
C
atomic weight of K is greater than Na
D
only eight electrons are present in third shell of K
Question 10
Molten NaC1 conducts the electricity because it contains    
A
free atom
B
free molecule
C
free ion
D
free electron
Question 11
Which alcohol gives blue colour in Victor Meyer’s test?     
A
Butyl alcohol
B
Iso-butyl alcohol
C
Secondary butyl alcohol
D
Tertiary butyl alcohol
Question 12
The atomic number of an element is 20. In which period of Periodic Table it will be placed?     
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 13
For the dissociation of formic acid, acetic acid and carbonic acid the value of pKa is 3.62, 4.74 and 6.3 respectively. Which of the following statement is correct?    
A
Formic acid is the strongest acid
B
Acetic acid is the weakest acid
C
Carbonic acid is the strongest acid
D
Acetic acid is weaker than carbonic acid
Question 14
Which of the following acid does not contain —COOH group?      
A
Lactic acid
B
Barbituric acid
C
Succinic acid
D
Carbonic acid
Question 15
Which of the following statement is false?    
A
Electron absorbs energy on transition from lower energy level to higher energy level.
B
Electron cannot fall in nucleus from third energy level.
C
Electron emits energy on transition from higher energy level to lower energy level.
D
Electron emits energy spontaneously in its ground state.
Question 16
Carbon tetrachloride is used as    
A
anaesthetic and disinfectant
B
coolant and fire extinguisher
C
industrial solvent and fire extinguisher
D
antibiotic and industrial solvent
Question 17
The structure of tetrafluoroborate     
A
tetrahedral
B
square planar
C
octahedral
D
trigonal planar
Question 18
Generally, alkenes and alkynes show the following type of reaction   
A
nucleophilic addition
B
electrophilic addition
C
free radical substitution
D
electrophilic substitution
Question 19
After calcination, metal is obtained in the form of     
A
oxide
B
hydrated oxide
C
sulphide
D
carbonate
Question 20
The reaction of ether with cold HI is called    
A
Williamson’s synthesis
B
Zeravitinof method
C
Zeisel method
D
None of the abovev
Question 21
Which of the following is not a polymer?     
A
Teflon
B
Nylon
C
Orlon
D
Phorone
Question 22
Aniline reacts with conc. H2S04 at 150°C to form     
A
sulphanilic acid
B
sulphonic acid
C
o-amino sulphonic acid
D
aniline sulphate
Question 23
Which of the following has minimum energy?     
A
o bond
B
r bond
C
ionic bond
D
hydrogen bond
Question 24
The atomic mass of two elements is same. There arc 27 protons in first element and 30 protons in second element. If 30 neutrons are present in first element then neutron in second element will be    
A
27
B
30
C
29
D
28
Question 25
Which of the following is strong reducing agent?     
A
Li
B
Na
C
Al
D
Zn
Question 26
On moving top to bottom in a group     
A
ionization potential increases
B
electronegativity increases
C
oxidising strength increases
D
reducing strength increases
Question 27
Homolytic fission produces    
A
free radical
B
carbocation
C
carbonion
D
carbine
Question 28
CH3CH2OH and CH3 —O—-CH3  is    
A
position isomers
B
functional isomers
C
chain isomers
D
geometrical isomers
Question 29
Alkaline KMnO4 is called      
A
Tollen’s reagent
B
Baeyer’s reagent
C
Benedict solution
D
None of these
Question 30
The shape of electron cloud is determined by     
A
principal quantum number
B
azimuthal quantum number
C
spin quantum number
D
All of the above
Question 31
The oxidation number of Cr in K2CrO4 is     
A
+3
B
—3
C
+6
D
—6
Question 32
On moving left to right in a period, the electropositive character     
A
increases
B
decreases
C
first increases then decreases
D
first decreases then increases
Question 33
Malachite is the ore of which metal?      
A
Fe
B
Cu
C
Al
D
Ag
Question 34
Alkyl halide reacts with alcoholic KOH to give     
A
alcohol
B
alkene
C
alkane
D
aldehyde
Question 35
The concentration of pyrite ore is done by which method       
A
calcination
B
roasting
C
froth floatation
D
gravity separation
Question 36
The molecular weight of ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether are equal but the boiling point of ethyl alcohol is greater than dimethyl ether. It is due to    
A
ether is insoluble in water
B
methyl group is attached to oxygen in ether
C
the dipole moment of ethanol is greater
D
ethanol has H-bond
Question 37
Mostly alloys are made by which block of elements       
A
s-block
B
p-block
C
d-block
D
f-block
Question 38
Which of the following is not soluble in conc. H2S04 ?     
A
n-hexane
B
hexene
C
benzene
D
ethanol
Question 39
Ethylene can obtained by the electrolysis of    
A
potassium fumarate
B
potassium succinate
C
potassium maleate
D
potassium formete
Question 40
The oxidation number of C-atom in CH2C12 and CC14 is respectively    
A
zero and 4
B
zero and —4
C
2 and 4
D
—2 and —4
Question 41
CH3 —O——C3H7 and C2H5—O—C2H5 show the following isomerism     
A
position
B
functional
C
metamerism
D
tautomerism
Question 42
On moving left to right in period the ionization potential    
A
increases
B
decreases
C
first increases then decreases
D
first decreases then increases
Question 43
Lithium and magnesium show the similarity in . characteristics because    
A
both find in nature along
B
both have approximately same size
C
both have some electronic configuration
D
their ratio of charge and size are approximately same
Question 44
Which of the following character always increases on moving top to bottom In group?       
A
ionization potential
B
electron affinity
C
electronegativity
D
atomic radius
Question 45
In the extraction of copper, its ore is heated at high temperature, in the presence of air. This process is called     
A
smelting
B
calcination
C
roasting
D
distillation
Question 46
Aromatic compounds give mainly following reaction    
A
electrophilic addition
B
nucleophilic addition
C
nucleophilic substitution
D
electrophilic substitution
Question 47
The [H+]of a solution is 1mol/L. its pH will be     
A
1.0
B
10.0
C
0.1
D
zero
Question 48
The aqueous solution of a salt is basic. it is the salt of    
A
strong acid and strong base
B
strong acid and weak base
C
weak acid and weak base
D
weak acid and strong base
Question 49
During the extraction of aluminium, cryolito adds in alumina    
A
to obtain pure Al
B
to dissolve alumina
C
to remove impurities
D
to catalysis
Question 50
The product of the reaction of chloroform with conc. HNO3 is    
A
chloretone
B
chloropicrin
C
nitromethane
D
methyl nitrite
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