# Engineering Entrance Exam Question Answers

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## Engineering Entrance Exam Question Answers - Physics

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Your answers are highlighted below.
 Question 1
The atomic mass of ionic lithium atoms are 0.06 amu. If they are motion with energy 400 eV in magnetic field of 0.08 T, then radius of circular path will be
 A 8.83 cm B 9.23 cm C 10.5 cm D 11.25 cm
 Question 2
Two charges 4q and q are placed at distance /. In the middle adjoining line a charge Q is kept. If resultant force on q will be zero, then Q will be
 A +q B -q C +2q D -2g
 Question 3
Two coherent monochromatic light beam of intensities I and 41 are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are
 A 31 and 21 B 257 and 97 C 97 and 7 D 57 and 37
 Question 4
Two steady sound sources having same frequency are placed at a distance of 1 m. An observer is moving at a distance of 10 m along the line joining there source. If the observed distance between first two successive maxima is 0.11 m, then frequency of sources is (velocity of sound v = 330 m/s.)
 A 1000 Hz B 3000 Hz C 3500 Hz D 4000 Hz
 Question 5
car moving with a speed of 28 m/s and blowing the horn of 500 Hz frequency waves another car moving at 15 m/s. What will be the observed frequency is the dimer of second car? (speed of sound = 332 m/s)
 A 480Hz B 500 Hz C 520Hz D 580Hz
 Question 6
The average emf induced in a coil in which current changes from 2 A to 4 A in 0.05 s is 8 V. What is the self Inductance of the coil?
 A 0.5 H B 0.35 H C 0.2 H D 2 mH
 Question 7
In a potential meter, a voltage source and battery of 3 V are balance at length 60cm length 45 cm respectively. The emf unknown voltage will be
 A 3V B 4V C 4.5V D 6V
 Question 8
The square coil of turn 60 has length 20 cm and breath 10 cm is rotating rate of 1800 rev/min in uniform magnetic field of intensity 0.5 T. the maximum emf of coil will be
 A 98V B 110V C 113V D 118V
 Question 9
The number of turn in the primary coil of a transformer is 240. For an input of alternating voltage 20 V, output voltage is 2.5 V. 7 number of turns in the secondary coil is
 A 250 B 100 C 10 D 30
 Question 10
A given charge is situated at a certain distance from an electric dipole in the end on position experience a force F. If the distance of the charge is doubled, the force acting on the charge will be
 A zero B F/2 C F/4 D F/8
 Question 11
Some point in progressive waves are
 A not remain at rest B always move C in each cycle two times at rest at the same time D in each cycle one time at rest at the same time
 Question 12
One end closed pipe of length L resonented at any frequency. The length of open both ends pipe, for resonant at same frequency will be
 A L/2 B L C 3L/2 D 2L
 Question 13
The frequency of Piano of length 1.1 m and of mass 160 g is 33 Hz, the tension will be
 A 556 N B 3000 N C 843N D 995N
 Question 14
A tuning forks gives 5 beats/s with 20 cm length of sonometer. If length of wire changes from 20 to 21, and not change in frequency, then frequency of tuning forks will be
 A 205 Hz B 210 Hz C 220 Hz D 195 Hz
 Question 15
When semiconductor makes from Germanium doped by phosphorus, then in semiconductor
 A quantity of negative electric charge will be maximum B electrons will be maximum C quantity of positive electric charge will be maximum D holes will be maximum
 Question 16
In insulator, energy interval of low order is
 A zero B 0.7 eV C 1.1 eV D 5 eV
 Question 17
A hydrogen atom is in first excited state, then ion energy will be
 A 13.l eV B 3.4 eV C 1.51 eV D 1.9 eV
 Question 18
Crod makes of soft iron in electromagnet, because its
 A diathesis and retantivity are maximum B diathesis is maximum and retantivity is minimum C diathesis and retantivity are minimum D retantivity is maximum and diathesis minimum
 Question 19
A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When half of the lens is covered by opaque screen.
 A Half the image will disappear B Upper half the image will disappear C Complete image will be formed of decreased intensity D Complete image will disappear
 Question 20
Half year of a radioactive element is 5 days. The time during which quantity remains 7/8 of initial mass will be
 A 2,5 days B 5 days C 10 days D 15 days
 Question 21
The chemical equivalent of silver is 108. If the current in silver voltameter is 2 A; then the during time in collecting of 27 g silver will be
 A 8.75 h B 6.70 h C 3.35 h D 12.50 h
 Question 22
For iron magnet materials
 A permeability is high and tendency is positive and low B permeability is very high and tendency is negative and low C permeability is very low and tendency is positive and high D permeability is very low and tendency is negative and low
 Question 23
To obtain a P-type germanium semiconductor, it must be doped with
 A boran B antimany C arsenic D phosphorus
 Question 24
The ratio of ioning power of a and B particle emitted from a radioactive element will be
 A 1:100 B 100:1 C 1000: 1 D 1: 1000
 Question 25
In question 98, how much inductance is added the circuit so that reactance becomes minimum?
 A O.31H B O.41H C 1.25 H D 1.75 H
 Question 26
When hydrogen atom makes a transition from ground state to excited state, then
 A its kinetic and potential energies decrease. B potential energy increases and kinetic energy decreases C potential energy decreases and kinetic energy increases D its kinetic and potential energies increase
 Question 27
A heater coil is labelled 100 W, 220 V. The coil is cut into two equal halves and the two pieces are joined in parallel to the same source. The energy now liberated per second is
 A 50J B 40J C 4000J D 400J
 Question 28
A straight conductor of length 0.4 m is moved with a speed of 7 m/s perpendicular to the magnetic field of intensity of 0.9 Wb/m2. The induced emf across the conductor will be
 A 3.52 V B 25.2 V C 2.52 V D 0.252 V
 Question 29
Dimension of RC is
 A square of time B equal to time C Inverse of time D inverse of square of time
 Question 30
Efficiency of a Carnot engine is 40% when temperature of outlet is 500 K. In order to increase efficiency up to 50% keeping temperature of intake the same. What is temperature of outlet?
 A 700K B 600K C 400K D 500K
 Question 31
Which of the following is used to produce radio waves of constant amplitude
 A oscillator B FET C Rectifier D Amplifier
 Question 32
Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap which is 5m above the ground. The third drop is learning the tap at the instant the first drop touches the ground. How for above the ground is the second drop at that instant?
 A 2.50 m B 3.75 m C 4.00 m D 1.25 m
 Question 33
A particle is moving on circular path. The centripetal force is inversely proportional to distance r. The velocity of particle will
 A be proportional to r B not depend upon r C be inversely proportional to r D be proportional to r2
 Question 34
An electron makes a transition from orbit n = 4 to be the orbit n = 2 of a hydrogen atom. The wave number of the emitted radiations (R = R vdberg’s constant) will be
 A 7/16 R B 3R/16 C 16/3 R D 9R/16
 Question 35
The bond present in conductors are
 A covalent B metallic C van der Waals D ionic
 Question 36
The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment M by angle of 900 from the meridian is n times the corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of 60° where n is given by
 A 4 B 2 C 1/2 D 1
 Question 37
The surface tension of soap bubbles is 0.03 N/m (both surfaces). The excess pressure inside a soap bubbles of diameter 30 mm is
 A 2Pa B 8Pa C 16 Pa D 10 Pa
 Question 38
The length of a sonometer wire AB is 110 cm. At what distance the two bridge are placed so that the wire is divided into such three parts. Basic frequencies of which are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3.
 A 60 cm and 30 cm B 60 cm and 90 cm C 20cm and 40cm D 40cm and 60cm
 Question 39
Which of the following is not a state function?
 A Work done at constant pressure B Enthalpy C Work done by conservative force D Work done by non-conservative force
 Question 40
An aluminium rod and a copper rod are taken such that their lengths are same and their resistances are also same. The specific resistance of copper is half that of aluminium, but its density is three times that of aluminium. The ratio of the mass of aluminium rod and that of copper rod will be
 A 1/6 B 2/3 C 1/3 D 6
 Question 41
In a potentiometer, the null point is received at 7th wire. If now we have to change the null point at 9th wire, what should we do?
 A Attach resistance in series with battery B Increase resistance in main circuit C Decrease resistance in main circuit D Decrease applied emf
 Question 42
Reverberation time does not depend upon
 A temperature B volume of room C size of window D carpet and curtain
 Question 43
Which of the following is true regarding beats?
 A Frequency different, amplitude same B Frequency same, amplitude same C Frequency same, amplitude different D None of the above
 Question 44
When both the listener and source are moving towards each other, then which of the following is true regarding frequency and wavelength of wave observed by the observer?
 A More frequency, less wavelength B More frequency, more wavelength C less frequency, less wavelength D More frequency, constant wavelength
 Question 45
In which of the following, force is constant?
 A Uniform circular motion B Elliptical motion C Uniform linear motion D Projectile motion
 Question 46
The coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is 0.25. The maximum speed with which car can be driven round a curve of radius 40 m without skidding is (assume g=l0m/s2)
 A 40 m/s B 20 m/s C 15 m/s D 10 m/s
 Question 47
The minimum force required to move a body of mass m vertically upward is
 A mg B mg/2 C more than 2 mg D more than mg
 Question 48
If distance between earth and sun become four times than time period becomes
 A 4 times B 8 times C 1/4 times D 1/8 times
 Question 49
An air bubble is contained inside water. It behaves as
 A concave lens B convex lens C neither convex nor concave D Cannot say
 Question 50
The power dissipated across resistance R which is connected across a battery of potential V is P. If resistance is doubled, then the power becomes
 A 1/2 B 2 C 1/4 D 2
 Question 51
BE/nucleon relation with mass number
 A first decreases then increases B first increases then decreases C increases D decreases
 Question 52
Which of the following four fundamental forces has shortest range?
 A Nuclear B Gravitational C Electromagnetic D Weak force
 Question 53
If acceleration of a particle at any time is given by  a=2t+5 Calculate, the velocity after 5s, if it starts from rest.
 A 50 m/s B 25 m/s C 100 m/s D 75 m/s
 Question 54
To look inside an atom of diameter 100 pm we have to penetrate it upto a breadth of 10 pm. If we use an electron microscope, the minimum required energy will be
 A 1.5 keV B 15 keV C l50keV D 1.05 keV
 Question 55
Light year is used to measure
 A distance between stars B distance between atoms C revolution time of earth around sun D None of the above
 Question 56
Electromagnetic waves are produced by
 A accelerated charged particle B decelerated charged particle C charge in uniform motion D None of the above
 Question 57
A beam of proton with velocity 4 x l05 m/s enters a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T at an angle of 600 to the magnetic field. Find the radius of the helical path taken by the proton beam.
 A 0.2 cm B 1.2 cm C 2.2 cm D 0.122 cm
 Question 58
When light passes from one medium to other then which will not change?
 A Frequency B Wavelength C Amplitude D Velocity
 Question 59
Total internal reflection takes place
 A When a ray moves from denser to rarer and incident angle is greater than critical angle. B When a ray moves from rarer to denser and incident angle is less than critical angle. C When a ray moves from rarer to denser and incident angle is equal to critical angle. D None of the above
 Question 60
The equipotential surface related to an electric field, increases in magnitude along x-axis Is
 A plane parallel to y-z plane B plane parallel to x-y plane C plane parallel to x-z plane D equi axis cylinder of increasing radius about x-axis
 Question 61
During projectile motion, the horizontal velocity
 A first increases then decreases B first decreases then increases C always increases D always constant
 Question 62
Find the ratio of acceleration due to gravity g at depth d and at height A, where, d = 2h.
 A 1:1 B 1:2 C 2:1 D 1:4
 Question 63
According to Huygen,s principle, the locus of all the particles of the medium, which at any instant are vibrating in the same phase, is called
 A half period zone B oscillator C wavefront D ray of light
 Question 64
An oil on the water surface spreads like a thin layer because
 A oil drop tries to become spherical due to the surface tension B surface tension of water is greater than the surface tension of oil C surface tension of water is equal to the surface of oil D weight of oil is less than weight of water
 Question 65
A body placed on the earth at static position. If it is pushed then the final state of centre of gravity will be
 A near the earth B at some height from the earth C remain same D remain at the same plane
 Question 66
If the earth stops moving around its polar axis then what will be effect on body placed at south axis?
 A Remain same B Increase C Decrease but not zero D Decrease zero
 Question 67
The temperature of sun is
 A 1000 K B 7000 K C 10K D l0x 106K
 Question 68
Hydrogen gas is filled in the bubble. For the sound wave, the bubble will be
 A like a converging lens B like a convex mirror C like a concave lens D None of the above
 Question 69
The ratio of radius of two bubbles is 2 : 1. What is the ratio excess pressure inside them
 A 1:2 B 1:4 C 2:1 D 4:1
 Question 70
Brownian motion is evidence of
 A kinetic energy of substance B principle of electromagnetic C Newton’s law D photoelectric phenomenon
 Question 71
Beats are result of
 A interference B refraction C reflection D diffraction
 Question 72
An ice block contains a glass ball when the see melts within the water containing vessel, the level of water
 A will increase B will decrease C will remain same D first increase and after that decrease
 Question 73
Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 4 kg having velocities 2 m/s and 10 m/s respectively are coming close to each other under a gravitational force, then the velocity of centre of mass will be
 A 5m/s B 6m/s C 8 m/s D zero
 Question 74
The ratio of intensities of two beams of light in interference is 9:1. The ratio of maximum and minimum intensities
 A 10:8 B 9:1 C 4:1 D 2:1
 Question 75
Four wires having same length, diameter and material are connected in the form of a square. If the resistance of each wire is R, then resistance of combination across any two opposite ends is
 A R B R/2 C R/4 D None of these
 Question 76
The electric motor operating on a 200 volt DC supply draw a current of 10 A. If the power is 40%, then resistance of motor
 A 20 B 8n C 12n D 16n
 Question 77
What is increased in step down transformer?
 A current B voltage C power D frequency
 Question 78
According to modern physics the nature of light is
 A only wave B only particle C Both wave and particle D None of the above
 Question 79
Which has more luminous efficiency?
 A a 40 W bulb B a 40 W tube light C Both of same D Cannot say
 Question 80
The half-life of radioactive element is 600 yr. The fraction of sample that would remain after 3000 yr is
 A 1/2 B 1/16 C 1/8 D 1/32
 Question 81
The light of wavelength 5000 A falls on a photosensitive plate of work function 1.9 eV. The kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron is
 A 0.58 eV B 2.48 eV C 1.24 eV D 1.18 eV
 Question 82
The number of electrons and holes in semiconductor at normal temperature will be
 A equal B zero C unequal D infinite
 Question 83
A cylindrical conductors is placed near an another positive conductor, the total charge induced by the conductor is
 A only positive B only negative C zero D None of these
 Question 84
If units of force, length and time are 1 kilo-newton, 1 km and 100 second respectively, then unit of mass will be
 A 1000 kg B 1kg C 10000 kg D 100 kg
 Question 85
Which of the following equation represents a progressive wave?
 A y=Acos ax sin bt B y=Asin bt C y=Acos(ax +bt) D y =Atan(ax+bt)
 Question 86
The frequency and velocity of sound wave are 600 Hz and 360 m/,s respectively. Phase difference between two particles of medium are 60°, the minimum distance between these two particles will be
 A 10 cm B 15 cm C 20 cm D 50 cm
 Question 87
The heat required to increase the temperature of 4 moles of a monoatomic ideal gas from 273 K to 473 K at constant volume is
 A 200H B 400R C 800J D 1200R
 Question 88
A solid sphere rolls without slipping on the roof. The ratio of its rotational kinetic energy and its total kinetic energy is
 A 2/5 B 4/5 C 2/7 D 3/7
 Question 89
A black body at a temperature of 2600 K has the wavelength corresponding to maximum emission 1200A. Assuming the moon to be perfectly black body the temperature of the moon, if the wavelength corresponding to maximum emission is 5000 A is
 A 7800 K B 6240 K C 5240 K D 3640 K
 Question 90
When the light enters from air to glass, for which colour the angle of deviation is maximum?
 A Red B Yellow C Blue D Violet
 Question 91
Which of the following event, support the quantum nature of light?
 A Diffraction B Polarization C Interference D Photoelectric effect
 Question 92
The electric potential at centre of metallic conducting sphere is
 A zero B half from potential at surface of sphere C equal from potential at surface of sphere D twice from potential at surface of sphere
 Question 93
Magnet moment of bar magnet is M. The work done to turn the magnet by 90° of magnet in direction of magnetic field B will be
 A zero B 1-MB C 2MB D MB
 Question 94
The maximum voltage in DC circuit is 282 Volt. The effective voltage in AC circuit will be
 A 200V B 300V C 400 V D 564 V
 Question 95
A charged particle enters in a magnetic field whose direction is parallel to velocity of the particle, then the speed of this particle
 A in straight line B in coiled path C in circular path D in ellipse path
 Question 96
Which of the following transition gives the photon of minimum frequency?
 A n=2 to n=1 B n=3 to n=1 C n=3 to n=2 D n=4 to n=3
 Question 97
Ionization energy of He+ ion at minimum position is
 A 13.6 eV B 27.2 eV C 54.4 eV D 68.0 eV
 Question 98
The half-life period of a radioactive substance is 3 days. Three fourth of substance decays in
 A 3days B 6 days C 9 days D 12 days
 Question 99
A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting
 A low resistance in parallel B low resistance in series C high resistance in parallel D high resistance in series
 Question 100
A heater coil cut into two equal parts and one part is connected with heater. Now heat generated in heater will be
 A twice B half C one- fourth D four times
 Question 101
1 mole of gas occupies a volume of 200 ml at 100 mm pressure. What is the volume occupied by two moles of gas at 400 mm pressure and at same temperature?
 A 50 mL B 200 mL C 100 mL D 400 mL
 Question 102
One circular ring and one circular disc, both are having the same mass and radius. Then both of their moments of inertia about the axes passing through their centres and perpendicular to their planes, will be in the ratio
 A 1:1 B 2:1 C 1:2 D 4:1
 Question 103
Two spheres P and Q, of same colour having radii 8 cm and 2 cm are maintained at temperature 127°C and 527°C respectively. The ratio of energy radiated by P and Q is
 A 0.054 B 0.0034 C 1 D 2
 Question 104
When light rays from the sun fall on a convex lens along a direction parallel to its axis.
 A Focal length for all colors is the same B Focal length for violet color is the shortest C Focal length for yellow color is the longest D Focal length for red color is the shortest
 Question 105
Diffraction and interference of light suggest
 A nature of light is electromagnetic B wave nature C nature is quantum D nature of light is transverse
 Question 106
If two waves of same frequency and same amplitude respectively, are superimposed on each other produces a resultant disturbance of the same amplitude, then the waves differ in phase by
 A r B 2r/3 C r/2 D zero
 Question 107
The intensity of magnetic field is H and moment of magnet is M. The maximum potential energy is
 A MH B 2 MH C 3MH D 4MH
 Question 108
The minimum energy required to excite a hydrogen atom from its ground state is
 A 13.6 eV B -13.6 eV C 3.4 eV D 10.2 eV
 Question 109
Potential gradient is defined as
 A fall of potential per unit length of the wire B fall of potential for unit area of the wire C fall of potential between two ends of the wire D potential at any one end of the wire
 Question 110
If two bulb have 40 W and 60 W rating at 220 V then the ratio of their resistances will be
 A 9:4 B 4:3 C 3:8 D 3:2
 Question 111
A quarter horse power motor runs at a speed of 600 rpm. Assuming 40% efficiency, the work done by the motor in one rotation will be
 A 7.46 J B 7400 J C 7.46 erg D 74.6 J
 Question 112
The volume of a gas at 210 C temperature and 768 mm pressure is 1 litre. If the density of the gas is 1.2 g dm-3 at NTP, then its mass will be
 A 4g B 4.22g C 1.13 g D l0g
 Question 113
Which of the following statement are true in a case when two water drops coalesce and make a bigger drop?
 A Energy is neither released and nor absorbed B Energy is absorbed C The surface area of the bigger drop is greater than the sum of the surface area of both the drops D The surface area of the bigger drop is smaller than the sum of the surface areas of both the drops
 Question 114
The x and y coordinates of a particle at any time t are given x = 7t + 4t2 and y = 5t, where x and y are in metre and t in second. The acceleration of particle at t= 5s is
 A zero B 8m/s2 C 20 m/s2 D 40 m/s2
 Question 115
A small object placed on a rotating horizontal turn-table just slips when it is placed at a distance of 4 cm from the axis of rotation. If the angular velocity of the turn-table is doubled the object slips when its distance from the axis of rotation is
 A lcm B 2cm C 4cm D 8cm
 Question 116
A bullet of 5 g is fired with a velocity of 800 m/s. The velocity of bullet becomes 200 m/s when it pierces a wooden block 2 m thick. What is the average resistance offered by the wooden block?
 A 8.5 kN B 7.5 kN C 6.5 kN D 30 kN
 Question 117
The two waves, whose intensities are 9 : 16 are made to interfere. The ratio of maximum and minimum intensities in the interference pattern is
 A 16:9 B 4:3 C 25:7 D 49:1
 Question 118
The rate of outflow of liquid through an orifice does not depend upon
 A radius of the orifice B height of the liquid column C acceleration due to gravity D density of the liquid
 Question 119
Two lamps of powers P1 and P2 are placed on either side of a paper having an oil spot. The lamps are at distances of 1 m and 2 m respectively on either side of the paper and the oil spot is invisible. What is the value of P1/P2?
 A 0.25 B 0.4 C 0.5 D 0.6
 Question 120
Mid way between the two equal and similar charges, we place the third equal and similar charge. Which of the following statements is correct?
 A The third charge experiences a net force inclined to the line joining the charges B The third charge is in stable equilibrium C The third charge is in unstable equilibrium D The third charge experience a net force perpendicular to the line joining the charges
 Question 121
A magnetic field of 20 T is normal to a coil of 100 turns and area 10-2 m2. If the coil is removed from the magnetic field is 2 ms, what is the induced emf set up in the coil?
 A 2 kV B 5 kV C 7 kV D 10 Kv
 Question 122
If half-life of a radioactive atom is 2.3 days then its decay constant would be
 A 0.1 B 0.2 C 0.3 D 2.3
 Question 123
The half-life period of a radioactive substance is 5 min. The amount of substance decayed in 20 min will be
 A 93.75% B 75% C 25% D 6.25%
 Question 124
A capacitor of capacitance 6 u F is charged upto 100 V. The energy stored in the capacitor is
 A 0.6 J B 0.06 J C 0.03 .1 D 0.3 J
 Question 125
A 750 Hz, 20 V source is connected to a resistance of 1000Q, an inductance of 0.1803 H and a capacitance of 10 u F all in series. What is the time in which resistance (thermal capacity 2 J/°C) will get heated by 10°C?
 A 380s B 384s C 470s D 479s
 Question 126
A capacitor discharges through an inductor of 0.02 H. If the frequency of discharge is 100 Hz then what is the capacitance of the capacitor?
 A 14.67 u F B 12.67 u F C 9.67 u F D 4.67 u F
 Question 127
A bomb of 12 kg explods into two pieces of masses 4 kg and 8 kg. The velocity of 8 kg mass is 6 m/s. The kinetic energy of the other mass is
 A 48 J B 32 J C 24 J D 288 J
 Question 128
A body cools in 7 mm from 60°C to 40°C. What time does it take to cool from 400C to 280C if the surrounding temperature is 10°C?
 A 3.5 min B 14 min C 7 min D 10 min
 Question 129
What is the color of the interference fringe nearest to the white central maximum in case the source of light is white?
 A Yellow B Red C Blue D Violet
 Question 130
What will be the kinetic energy of an electron having de-Broglie wavelength 2A?
 A 37.5 eV B 75 eV C l50 eV D 30 eV
 Question 131
Focal length of a convex lens will be maximum for
 A blue light B yellow light C green light D red light
 Question 132
Pitch of a node depends upon
 A frequency B wavelength C amplitude D None of these
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## Engineering Entrance Exam Question Answers - Chemistry

Congratulations - you have completed Engineering Entrance Exam Question Answers - Chemistry. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
 Question 1
Which of the following statements is true for enzymes? I. Enzymes do not have nucleophilic groups. II. Enzymes are specific in joining with chiral molecules and catalyse their reaction. III. Enzyme catalysis the chemical reactions by decreasing the activation energy. IV. Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme.
 A I B I and IV C I and III D II. Ill and IV
 Question 2
Identify the correct statement.
 A Plaster of Paris is obtained by the partial oxidation of gypsum. B The percentage of plaster of calcium in gypsum is less than plaster of Paris. C Gypsum is obtained by the plaster of Paris on heating. D Plaster of Paris is obtained by the addition of water in gypsum.
 Question 3
The electronic configuration of a element is 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p3.What is the atomic number of element which is below exactly this element in the Periodic Table?
 A 49 B 31 C 34 D 33
 Question 4
Ideal gas which obeys the molecular kinetic theory of gases can be liquified. If
 A it cannot be liquified at any pressure and temperature. B its pressure is greater than pc at less temperature from T. C its temperature is greater than critical temperature Tc . D its pressure is greater than critical pressure.
 Question 5
The oxidation of glucose in living cell is a important reaction. What are number of  ATP molecules which are produced by molecules  of glucose in cells?
 A 28 B 38 C 12 D 18
 Question 6
A chemical reaction is catalysed by catalyst X. Hence, X
 A increases the activation energy of reaction. B does not effect the equilibrium constant of reaction. C decreases the velocity constant of reaction. D decreases the enthalpy of reaction.
 Question 7
The formation of bakelite takes place between the reaction of
 A phenol and formaldehyde B ethylene glycol and dimethyl terephthalate C urea and formaldehyde D tetramethylene glycol and hexa methylene diisocynate
 Question 8
Aluminium(111) chloride forms a dimer because
 A the ionisation energy of aluminium is high. B it cannot form trimer. C high coordination number can obtain by aluminium D aluminium belongs to third group.
 Question 9
Mercury is the only metal which is liquid at 0°C because
 A high vapour pressure B high ionisation energy and weak metallic bond C low ionisation potential D high atomic weight
 Question 10
The pH does not change on the addition of some amount of acid or base in the blood, because blood
 A becomes coagulate easily B has serum protein which acts as buffer C is liquid of body D has iron in the form a part of molecule
 Question 11
When benzene diazonium chloride solution is boilded it yields
 A benzene B phenol C aniline D chlorobenzene
 Question 12
The half-life of C14 radioactive is 5760 yr. After how much time will 200 mg C14 sample be reduced to 25 mg?
 A 23040 yr B 17280 yr C 11520 yr D 5760 yr
 Question 13
When benzene diazonium chloride solution is boilded it yields
 A benzene B phenol C aniline D chlorobenzene
 Question 14
Acetone reacts with chloroform in the presence of NaOH to give
 A chloral B chloretone C acetyl chloride D ethyl chloride
 Question 15
According to Raoult’s law the relative lowering in vapour pressure of a solution is equal to
 A moles of solute B mole fraction of solvent C moles of solvent D mole fraction of solute
 Question 16
In ideal condition, the number of moles of oxygen in 1 L air which has 21% oxygen according to volume
 A 2.10 mol B 0.0093 mol C 0.186 mol D 0.210 mol
 Question 17
The increasing acidity order of phenol, p-methyl phenol. m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol is
 A phenol, p-methyl phenol, p-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol B p-methyl phenol, phenol, m-nitrophenol, p-nitrophenol C p-methylphenol, m -nitrophenol, phenol, p-nitrophenol D m-nitrophenol, p-nitrophenol, phenol, p-methylphenol
 Question 18
The concentration unit will independent from temperature
 A weight volume percentage B molarity C normality D molality
 Question 19
pH of 10 M HCI solution is
 A 1 B 0 C 2 D less than zero
 Question 20
The number of geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH3)2C12]are
 A 3 B 4 C 2 D 1
 Question 21
Maximum explosive is
 A NCI3 B PCI3 C AsCI3 D All of these
 Question 22
The purest form of iron is
 A white cast iron B grey cast iron C wrought iron D steel
 Question 23
Ethyl amine reacts with nitrous acid to give
 A ethyl nitrite B ethyl alcohol C nitro ethane D acetic acid
 Question 24
What is the stoichiometry coefficient of Ca in the following reaction? Ca+AI3+ ------Ca2+Al
 A 2 B 1 C 3 D 4
 Question 25
Ozone is useful in the purification of water because
 A it releases oxygen on dissociation B it does not give unpleasant smell like chlorine C it acts as bactericide and destroys the bacteria, fungi etc D All of the above
 Question 26
Internal energy is the sum of
 A kinetic energy and potential energy B all types of energy of system C energies of internal system D None of the above
 Question 27
In the presence of Fe/HC1, aniline obtains from which of the following?
 A Benzene B Nitrobenzene C Dinitrobenzene D None of these
 Question 28
Which of the following is a strong base?
 A Benzamide B Butanamine C Nitrobenzene D Benzene
 Question 29
On comparison of S and S2-,the S2- has
 A large radius and large size B small radius and large size C large radius and small size D small radius and small size
 Question 30
Which of the following is the second most electronegative element?
 A Oxygen B Nitrogen C Fluorine D Sulphur
 Question 31
Which of the following has the lowest ionization potential?
 A Oxygen B Nitrogen C Fluorine D Sulphur
 Question 32
If the diffusion rate of NH3 is double of X, then the molecular weight of X will be
 A 68 B 48 C 12 D 8
 Question 33
The bond order of C—C bond of benzene.
 A 1 B 2 C between 1 and 2 D None of these
 Question 34
The decreasing order of bond length of following (A), Ethane (B) Ethene (C) Ethyne
 A A>B>C B B>A>C C C>B>A D C>A>B
 Question 35
What is the range of the size of colloidal particle?
 A 1 to 100 nm B 1 to 1000 cm C 1 to 1000 mm D 1 to 100 km
 Question 36
Which of the following element has the maximum electron affinity?
 A Fluorine B Chlorine C Sulphur D Xenon
 Question 37
Which is the most reactive inert gas?
 A He B Ne C Ar D Xe
 Question 38
Which type of bond presents in Xe molecule?
 A Covalent B Ion-dipole C van der Waals’ D Dipole-dipole
 Question 39
H2S is not a
 A reducing agent B acidic C oxidising agent D None of these
 Question 40
At constant temperature, the curve between p and Vis
 A straight line B increasing curve C straight line with slope D None of the above
 Question 41
At constant temperature, on doubling the p and V, the reversible constant will become
 A constant B double C quarter D None of these
 Question 42
Generally the +3 oxidation state is
 A Ni (28) B Fe (26) C Zn (30) D Cu (29)
 Question 43
The atomic size increases on moving downward because
 A the number of electrons increases B the number of protons and neutrons increases C the number of protons increases D the number of protons. neutrons and electrons increases
 Question 44
The ionization energy decreases on moving downward because
 A charge increases B atomic size increases C atomic size decreases D screening effect decreases
 Question 45
In electrolytic cell, the cathode acts as
 A oxidising agent B reducing agent C Either (a) or (b) D Neither (a) nor (b)
 Question 46
The order of reaction may be
 A zero B fraction C whole number D zero, fraction, whole number
 Question 47
Which has the maximum relative ionization power?
 A a-rays B B-rays C y-rays D X-rays
 Question 48
Which of the following is a vitamin?
 A Benzoic acid B Ascorbic acid C Oxalic acid D Formic acid
 Question 49
Which isomerism is shown by following compounds? CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3CH2OCH3
 A Position isomerism B Functional isomerism C Structural isomerism D Chain isomerism
 Question 50
The blister copper is
 A impure copper B alloy of copper C pure copper D copper with 1% impurity
 Question 51
Blood cells do not shrink in blood, because blood is
 A hypotonic B isotonic C isomolecular D hypertonic
 Question 52
On isothermal expansion of ideal gas, its
 A internal energy increases B enthalpy increases C enthalpy becomes zero on decreasing D enthalpy remains unchanged
 Question 53
Which of the following compound does not contain carboxylic group (—COOH)?
 A Acetic acid B Lactic acid C Benzoic acid D Picric acid
 Question 54
Which of the following compound will not obtain, on the distillation of calcium acetate with calcium formate?
 A Acetone B Formaldehyde C Acetaldehyde D Propionaldehyde
 Question 55
Glucose gives silver mirror test because it contains
 A —COOH group B a basic group C a ketonic group D an aldehyde group
 Question 56
Which compound is used to obtain teflon polymer?
 A Difluoro ethane B Monofluoro ethane C Tetrafluoro ethene D Tetrafluoro ethane
 Question 57
According to VSEPR theory the geometry of water molecule is
 A octahedral B distorted tetrahedral C trigonal planar D trigonal bipyramidal
 Question 58
On adding a nor-volatile solution in a solvent. the vapour pressure of solvent reduces 10 mm of Hg. The mole fraction of solute is 0.2 in the solution. The vapour  pressure of solution reduces to 20 mm of Hg on adding more solute in the solution. Now, what will the mole fraction of solvent in solution?
 A 0.2 B 0.4 C 0.6 D 0.8
 Question 59
Which of the Following statement  is false for ionic crystals?
 A The boiling point and melting point of ionic crystals are high. B These dissolves in water and other solvents. C At low temperature, these are conductor of electricity in solid state. D Their cohesive energy is high.
 Question 60
8 g amount of a radioactive substance remains 0.5 g after 1 h. What is its half-life?
 A 10 min B 15 min C 30 min D None of these
 Question 61
The quantity of  ionisation of decinormal solution of CH3COOH is 1.3%. What is the pH value of this solution? (log 1.3 =0.11)
 A 2.89 B 3.89 C 4.89 D O.89
 Question 62
A buffer solution is obtained on adding 10 mL 1.0 M CH3COOH and 20mL 0.5 MCH3COONa. It  is diluted to 100 mL by distilled water. If pka=4.76 forCH3COOH,then the pH value of buffer solution
 A 2.76 B 3.76 C 4.76 D 0.76
 Question 63
Hess,s law is used in the determination of
 A heat of reaction B heat of formation C heat of bond fornation D All of the above
 Question 64
Which of the following unit of  energy  show the maximum  value of energy?
 A Calorie B Joule C Erg D Electron—volt
 Question 65
Which of the following is the most electronegative?
 A Lead B Silicon C Carbon D Tin
 Question 66
Which of the following is the s—block element?
 A Aluminium B Chromium C Carbon D Potassium
 Question 67
The electronic configuration of a element is as 1s2,2s2 2p6,3s2,3p6,3d10,4s2,4p3 The property of this element is similar to
 A boron B oxygen C nitrogen D chlorine
 Question 68
Malachite is the ore of
 A Fe B Cu C Zn D Hg
 Question 69
For the purification of blister copper, the copper is melted in the furnance and stirring with green logs of woot. The purpose of this
 A to remove dissolved gases in blister copper B by taking the impurities on the surface to oxidise them C to increase the quantity of carbon in copper D the impurities of metal oxide are reduced by hydrocarbon gases evolved from wood
 Question 70
In the smelting of a metal ore. a substance is added, which forms a fusible product on mixing with impurities. The name of this substance is
 A slag B mud C gangue D flux
 Question 71
Which of the following has the highest melting point?
 A Barium B Strontium C Calcium D Radium
 Question 72
The transition elements are generally
 A diamagnetic B paramagnetic C neither diamagnetic nor paramagnetic D both diamagnetic and paramagnetic
 Question 73
[(C6H5)2Pd(NCS)2]and [(C6H5)2Pd(SCN)2] are
 A linkage isomers B coordination isomers C ionisation isomers D geometrical isomers
 Question 74
Acetylene reacts with HCN in the presence of Ba(CN)2 to give
 A vinyl cyanide B 1. 1-dicvano ethane C 1.2-dicvano ethane D None of the above
 Question 75
The substitution of chlorine becomes the most easiest in which of the following  compound?
 A Chloro benzene B Vinyl chloride C Allyl chloride D p-chloro toluene
 Question 76
The order of acidic  strength of phenol, p-cresol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol is
 A phenol, p—cresol, p-nitrophinol, m-nitrophinol B p-cresol, phenol, m-nitrophenol, p-nitrophinol C p-cresol, m-nitrophinol, phenol, p-nitrophinol D m-nitrophenol, phenol, p-cresol, p-nitrophenol
 Question 77
For which of the following metals, the electronic configuration of valence shell is not d6?
 A Fe (11) B Mn (11) C Co (111) D Ni (IV)
 Question 78
68 g sugar (C12H22O11) is dissolved In 1 kg of water. What is the mole fraction of sugar?
 A 0.018 B 0.036 C 0.0018 D 0.0036
 Question 79
The     Ph     of    0.1 M   aqueous ammonia (Kb =l.8x10-5)is
 A 9.13 B 10.13 C 11.13 D 12.13
 Question 80
How much volume (in litre) of 3M NaOH is obtained from 80 g NaOH? (Atomic mass of Na = 23 u)
 A 2.67 B 1.34 C 0.67 D 0.33
 Question 81
The initial concentration of sugar solution is 0.12 M. On doing fermentation the concentration of sugar decreases to 0.06 M in 10 h and to 0.045 M in 15 h. The order of the reaction is
 A 0.5 B 1 C 1.5 D 2
 Question 82
The lowest pka value is for
 A phenol B m-cresol C o-cresol D p-cresol
 Question 83
For the conversion of CH2=CH2 into HOOC. CH2CH2COOH, the minimum number of steps required are
 A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5
 Question 84
The total number of isomers for cyclic alcohol C4H7OH is
 A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5
 Question 85
The reaction of C2H5Cl with Li and Cul  gives mainly
 A 2-butene B 1 ,3-butadiene C n-butane D n-butyl chloride
 Question 86
The correct order of stability is
 A Pentane < iso-pentane B iso-pentane < neo-pentane < pentane C neo-pentane< iso pentane < pentane D Pentane < neo-pentane < iso-pentane
 Question 87
The correct order of boiling point of ethyl dimethyl amine (A). n-butyl amine (B) and diethyl amine (C) is
 A B>C>A B B>A>C C A>B>C D C>B>A
 Question 88
The first ionisation energy difference is maximum for which pair?
 A Na, Mg B K, Ca C Rb, Sr D Cs, Ba
 Question 89
The ratio of third Bohr orbit radius and second Bohr orbit radius for the hydrogen atom is
 A 0.5 B 1.5 C 0.75 D 2.25
 Question 90
The principal quantum number of Mn for those valence shell orbits in which electrons are filled
 A 4, 3 B 4, 4 C 3,3 D 5,4
 Question 91
From the generally known oxidation states, the oxidation number is maximum for
 A Mn B Cu C Sn D Sc
 Question 92
Which of the following is correct order for density?
 A Cs>Rb>K>Na B Cs>Rb>Na>K C Rb > Cs > K> Na D Rb > Cs > Na > K
 Question 93
Which of the following would exert maximum osmotic pressure?
 A Decinormal aluminium sulphate B Decinormal barium chloride C Decinormal sodium chloride D A solution obtained by mixing equal volumes of (b) and (C) and filtering
 Question 94
The extraction of which of the following metals involves bessemerisalion?
 A Fe B Ag C Al D Cu
 Question 95
The correct order of decreasing first ionisation energy is
 A C > B> Be>Li B C > Be> B> Li C B > C> Be> Li D Be> Li> B> C
 Question 96
An example of natural biopolymer is
 A Thflon B Nylnn-66 C Rubber D DNA
 Question 97
Which of the following is known as invert soap?
 A Pentaerythritol monostearate B Sodium stearyl sulphate C Trimethyl stearyl ammonium bromide D Ethoxylated nonyphenol
 Question 98
Le-blanc process is  employed in the manufacture of
 A baking soda B washing soda C potash D Plaster of Paris
 Question 99
Carbon content of
 A steel is in between those of cast iron wrought iron B cast iron is in between those of steel and wrought iron C wrought iron is in between those of steel and cast iron D steel is higher than that of pig iron
 Question 100
The IUPAC name of acryldehyde is
 A prop-2-en-1-al B propenylaldehyde C but-2-en-l-al D propenal
 Question 101
Petrol for aviation purpose must contain
 A straight chain hydrocarbons B aromatic hydrocarbons C olefinic hydrocarbons D highly branched chain paraffins
 Question 102
The number of atoms contained in a fcc unit cell of a monoatomic substance is
 A 1 B 2 C 4 D 6
 Question 103
Which one of the following will undergo meta-substitution on monochlorination?
 A Ethoxybenzene B Chlorobenzene C Ethyl bcnzoate D Phenol
 Question 104
Propyne on passing through red hot copper tube forms
 A benzene B toluene C mesitylene D None of these
 Question 105
Which one of the following is mainly responsible for depletion of ozone layer?
 A Methane B Carbon dioxide C Water D Chlorofluorocarbons
 Question 106
On warming with silver powder, chloroform is converted into
 A acetylene B hexachloroethane C 1, 1, 2, 2-tetrachloroethane D ethylene
 Question 107
Grignard reagent is not prepared in aqueous medium but prepared in ether medium, because
 A the reagent is highly reactive in ether B the reagent does not react with water C the reagent becomes inactive in water D the reagent reacts with water
 Question 108
The pH value of 0.001 M aqueous solution of NaCI is
 A 7 B 4 C 11 D unpredictable
 Question 109
Hydrogen molecule differs from chlorine molecule in the following respect.
 A Hydrogen molecule is non-polar but chlorine molecule is pobr B Hydrogen molecule is polar while chlorine molecule is non-polar C Hydrogen molecule can form intermolecular hydrogen bonds but chlorine molecule does not D Hydrogen molecule cannot participate in coordinate bond formation but chlorine molecule can
 Question 110
Graphite is a
 A molecular solid B covalent solid C ionic solid D metallic solid
 Question 111
Point defects are present in
 A ionic solids B amorphous solid C molecular solids D liquids
 Question 112
Elevation in boiling point of an aqueous urea solution is 0.52°C [Kb= 0.52° mol-1 kg]. Hence, mole fraction of urea in this solution is
 A 0.982 B 0.567 C 0.943 D 0.018
 Question 113
Oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is
 A +10 B +8 C +6 D +4
 Question 114
The solubility of AgI in Nal solution is less than that in pure water because
 A AgI forms complex with Nal B of common ion effect C solubility product of Agl is less D the temperature of the solution decrease
 Question 115
Chlorination of toluene in presence of light and heat followed by treatment with aqueous NaOH gives
 A o-cresol B p-cresol C mixture of o-cresol and p-cresol D benzoic acid
 Question 116
The order of first ionization energies of the elements Li, Be, B, Na is
 A Li> Be> B> Na B Be> B> Li> Na C Na>Li>B>Be D Be>Li>B>Na
 Question 117
Effective magnetic moment of Sc3+ ion is
 A 1.73 B zero C 5.92 D 2.83
 Question 118
An alkene having the molecular formula C9H18 on ozonolysis gives 2, 2-dimethyl propanal and butanone. The alkene is
 A 2, 2, 2-trimethyl-3-hexene B 2, 2, 6-trimethyl-3-hexane C 2, 2, 4-trimethyl 3-hexene D 2, 3, 4-trimethyl-2-hexene
 Question 119
The number of optical isomers of CH3CH(OH)CH(OH)CHO is
 A 2 B 3 C 6 D 4
 Question 120
The amine which will not liberate nitrogen on reaction with nitrous acid is
 A trimethyl amine B ethyl amine C sec-butyl amine D iso-propyl amine
 Question 121
Four successive members of the first row of transition elements are listed below with their atomic numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest third ionisation enthalpy?
 A Vanadium (Z = 23) B Chromium (Z = 24) C Iron (Z = 26) D Manganese (Z =25)
 Question 122
Which of the following is not an ore of magnesium?
 A Magnesite B Dolomite C Gypsum D Carnallite
 Question 123
Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated by froth floatation process. Which one of the following sulphide ores offers an exception and is concentrated by chemical leaching?
 A Argentite B Galena C Copper pyrite D Sphalerite
 Question 124
Soldiers of Napolean army which at Alps during freezing winter suffered a serious problem as regards to the tin buttons of their uniforms. White metallic tin buttons got covered to grey powder. This transformation is related to
 A an interaction with nitrogen of the air at very low temperatures B a change in the partial pressure of oxygen in the air C a change in the crystalline structure of tin D an interaction with water vapour contained in the humid air
 Question 125
The structure of XeOF4 is
 A planar B tetrahedral C square pyramidal D pyramidal
 Question 126
Atomic emission spectra of an element can not be used to
 A identify the atom B determine the mass number of the nucleus of atom C measure the difference in energy between pairs of stationary state of atom D All of the above
 Question 127
When glucose reacts with bromine water, the main product is
 A acetic acid B saccharic acid C glyceraldehyde D gluconic acid
 Question 128
Amylopectin is a polymer of
 A a-D-glucose B a-D-fructose C lactose D amylose
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