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GATE Aerospace Engineering (AE) Online Mock Test

GATE Aerospace Engineering (AE) Online Mock Test Online Free. This mock test having 25 questions in each subjects, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this GATE AE test question details at the end of the quiz.

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GATE 2016 :Aerospace Engineering (AE) questions answers are applicable for any kind of Aerospace Engineering (AE) Entrance preparation or PSU Competitive Exam in India. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers GATE AE Exam 2016 critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking all India engineering entrance level exam.



GATE AE Online Mock Test – 1

GATE Aerospace Engineering (AE) Online Mock Test

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Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
At x=0, the function y= |x| is 
A
continuous but not differentiable
B
continuous and differentiable
C
not continuous but differentiable
D
not continuous and not differentiable
Question 2
Which one of the following is the most stable configuration of an airplane in roll? 
A
Sweep back, anhedral and low wing
B
Sweep forward, dihedral and low wing
C
Sweep forward, anhedral and high wing
D
Sweep back, dihedral and high wing
Question 3
Which one of the following flight instruments is used on an aircraft to determine its attitude in Flight? 
A
Vertical speed indicator
B
Altimeter
C
Artificial Horizon
D
Turn-bank indicator
Question 4
A supersonic airplane is expected to fly at both subsonic and supersonic speeds during its whole flight course. Which one of the following statements is TRUE? 
A
Airplane will experience less stability in pitch at supersonic speeds than at subsonic speeds
B
Airplane will feel no change in pitch stability
C
Airplane will experience more stability in pitch at supersonic speeds than at subsonic speeds
D
Pitch stability cannot be inferred from the information given
Question 5
Which one of the following is favorable for an airplane operation? 
A
Tail wind in cruise and head wind in landing
B
Tail wind both in cruise and landing
C
Head wind both in cruise and landing
D
Head wind in cruise and tail wind in landing
Question 6
Which one of the following is TRUE with respect to Phugoid mode of an aircraft? 
A
Frequency is directly proportional to flight speed
B
Frequency is inversely proportional to flight speed
C
Frequency is directly proportional to the square root of flight speed
D
Frequency is inversely proportional to the square root of flight speed
Question 7
Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for a supersonic flow? 
A
Over a gradual expansion, entropy remains constant
B
Over a sharp expansion corner, entropy can increase
C
Over a gradual compression, entropy can remain constant
D
Over a sharp compression corner, entropy increases
Question 8
Consider two engines P and Q. In P, the high pressure turbine blades are cooled with a bleed of 5% from the compressor after the compression process and in Q the turbine blades are not cooled. Comparing engine P with engine Q, which one of the following is NOT TRUE? 
A
Turbine inlet temperature is higher for engine P
B
Specific thrust is higher for engine P
C
Compressor work is the same for both P and Q
D
Fuel flow rate is lower for engine P
Question 9
For a given inlet condition, if the turbine inlet temperature is fixed, what value of compressor efficiency given below leads to the lowest amount of fuel added in the combustor of a gas turbine engine? 
A
1
B
0.95
C
0.85
D
0.8
Question 10
A gas turbine engine is mounted on an aircraft which can attain a maximum altitude of 11 km from sea level. The combustor volume of this engine is decided based on conditions at 
A
sea level
B
8 km altitude
C
5.5 km altitude
D
11 km altitude
Question 11
A rocket motor has a chamber pressure of 100 bar and chamber temperature of 3000 K. The ambient pressure is 1 bar. Assume that the specific heat at constant pressure is 1 kJ/kg-K. Also assume that the flow in the nozzle is isentropic and optimally expanded. The exit static temperature in K is 
A
805
B
845
C
905
D
945
Question 12
Which one of the following criteria leads to maximum turn rate and minimum radius in a level turnflight? 
A
Highest possible load factor and highest possible velocity
B
Lowest possible load factor and lowest possible velocity
C
Highest possible load factor and lowest possible velocity
D
Lowest possible load factor and highest possible velocity
Question 13
Thrust of liquid oxygen - liquid hydrogen rocket engine is 300 kN. The O/F ratio used is 5. If the fuel mass flow rate is 12.5 kg/s, the specific impulse of the rocket motor in Ns/kg is 
A
3800
B
4000
C
4200
D
4400
Question 14
In a 50 % reaction axial compressor stage, the local blade velocity is 300 m/s and the axial component of velocity is 100 m/s. If the absolute inlet flow angle α1 = 45o, the work per unit mass done on the fluid by the stage in kJ/kg is 
A
30
B
40
C
50
D
60
Question 15
Consider two rockets P and Q fired vertically up with identical specific impulse and a payload of 2 kg. Rocket P has 2 identical stages, and each stage has 200 kg of propellant and 20 kg of structural weight. Rocket Q has a single stage with 400 kg of propellant and 40 kg of structural weight. Neglecting drag and gravity effects, the ratio of the change in velocity of P to that attained by Q is 
A
1.13
B
1.23
C
1.33
D
1.43
Question 16
Minimum and maximum speeds of the airplane in level flight condition at sea-level in m/s are respectively 
A
17.36 and 180
B
17.36 and 34.22
C
34.22 and 119.46
D
17.36 and 119.46
Question 17
The Headmaster ___________ to speak to you. Which of the following options is incorrect to complete the above sentence? 
A
is wanting
B
wants
C
want
D
was wanting
Question 18
Mahatama Gandhi was known for his humility as 
A
he played an important role in humiliating exit of British from India.
B
he worked for humanitarian causes.
C
he displayed modesty in his interactions.
D
he was a fine human being.
Question 19
Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:water: pipe:: 
A
cart: road
B
electricity: wire
C
sea: beach
D
music: instrument
Question 20
In a factory, two machines M1 and M2 manufacture 60% and 40% of the autocomponents respectively. Out of the total production, 2% of M1 and 3% of M2 are found to be defective. If a randomly drawn autocomponent from the combined lot is found defective, what is the probability that it was manufactured by M2? 
A
0.35
B
0.45
C
0.5
D
0.4
Question 21
All professors are researchers Some scientists are professors Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above arguments: 
A
All scientists are researchers
B
All professors are scientists
C
Some researchers are scientists
D
No conclusion follows
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GATE AE Online Question Answers Test

Congratulations - you have completed GATE AE Online Question Answers Test.You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The constraint = A on any square matrix A is satisfied for     
A
the identity matrix only.
B
the mill matrix only.
C
both the identity matrix and the null matrix.
D
110 square matrix A.
Question 2
An aircraft in trinuneci condition has zero pitching moment at     
A
its aerodyiiamic centre.
B
its centre of avity.
C
25% of its mean aerodynamic chord.
D
50% of its wing root chord.
Question 3
In an aircraft. constant roll rate can be produced using ailerons by applying     
A
a step input.
B
a ramp input.
C
a sinusoidal input.
D
an impulse input.
Question 4
For a symmetric airfoil, the lift coefficient for zero degree angle of attack is      
A
—l.O
B
O.O
C
O.5
D
1.O
Question 5
The critical Mach number of an airfoil is attained when    
A
the freestream Mach number is sonic.
B
the freestream Macli inunber is supersonic.
C
the Macli number somewhere on the aiifoil is unity.
D
the Mach number everywhere on the airfoil is supersonic.
Question 6
The shadowgraph flow visualization technique depends on   
A
the variation of the value of density in the flow.
B
the first derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.
C
the second derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.
D
the third derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.
Question 7
The Hohmann ellipse used as earth-Mars transfer orbit has     
A
apogee at earth and perigee at Mars.
B
both apogee and perigee at earth.
C
apogee at Mars and perigee at earth.
D
both apogee and perigee at Mars.
Question 8
The value of k for which the system of equations s + 2v + k = 1: 2x + A + 8: = 3 has no solution is     
A
0
B
2
C
4
D
8
Question 9
During the ground roll manoeuvre of an aircraft. the force(s) acting on it parallel to the direction of motion     
A
is thrust alone.
B
is drag alone.
C
are both thrust and drag.
D
are thrust. drag and a part of both weight and lift.
Question 10
An aircraft in a steady climb suddenly experiences a 10°/o drop in thrust. After a new equilibrium is reached at the same speed. the new rate of climb is     
A
lower by exactly 10%.
B
lower by more than 10%.
C
lower by less than 10%.
D
an unpredictable quantity.
Question 11
In an aircraft. the dive manoeuvre can be initiated by     
A
reducing the engine thnist alone.
B
reducing the angle of attack alone.
C
generating a nose down pitch rate.
D
increasing the engine thrust alone.
Question 12
In an aircraft. elevator control effectiveness determines    
A
turn radius.
B
rate of climb.
C
forward-most location of the centre of gravity.
D
aft-most location of the centre of aravity.
Question 13
Bernoulli’s equation is valid under steady state    
A
only along a streamline in inviscid flow. and between any two points in potential flow.
B
between any two points in both inviscid flow and potential flow.
C
between any two points in inviscid flow, and only along a streamline in potential flow.
D
only along a streamline in both inviscid flow and potential flow.
Question 14
The ratio of flight speed to the exhaust velocity for maximum propulsion efficiency is       
A
0.0
B
0.5
C
1.0
D
2.0
Question 15
The ideal static pressure coefficient of a diffuser with an area ratio of 2.0 is     
A
0.25
B
0.50
C
0.75
D
All of these.
Question 16
A rocket is to be launched from the bottom of a very deep crater on Mars for earth return. The specific impulse of the rocket. measured in seconds. is to be normalized by the acceleration clue to zravity at    
A
the bottom of the crater on Mars.
B
Mars standard sea 1eve1’.
C
earths standard sea level.
D
the same depth of the crater on earth.
Question 17
In a semi-monocoque constniction of an aircraft wing. the skin and spar webs are the primary carriers of    
A
shear stresses clue to an aerodyiamic moment component alone.
B
normal (bending) stresses chie to aerodynamic forces.
C
shear stresses due to aerodynamic forces alone.
D
shear stresses due to aerodynamic forces and a moment component.
Question 18
The logarithmic decrement measured for a viscously damped single degree of freedom system is 0.125. The value of the damping factor in % is closest to     
A
0.5
B
1.0
C
1.5
D
2.0
Question 19
If an aircraft takes off with 10% less fuel in comparison to its standard configuration. its range is      
A
lower by exactly 10%.
B
lower by more than 10%.
C
lower by less than 10%.
D
an unpredictable quantity.
Question 20
An aircraft has an approach speed of 144 kmph with a descent angle of 6.6°. If the aircraft load factor is 1.2 and constant deceleration at tonch down is O.25g (g = 9.81 mi’s²). its total landing distance approximately over a 15 in high obstacle is    
A
1830 m.
B
1380 ni.
C
830 m.
D
380 m.
E
All of these
Question 21
An aircraft is trimmed straight and level at true air speed (TAS) of 100 rn/s at standard sea level (SS9. Further. pull of S N holds the speed at 90 in/s without re-triiiuning at SSL (air density = 1 .22 kg/ni). To fly at 3000 m altitude (air density = 0.91 kg/ni’) and 120 rn/s TAS without re-trimming. the aircraft needs    
A
1.95 N upward force.
B
1.95 N downward force.
C
1.85 N upward force.
D
1.75 N downward force.
Question 22
In a closed-circuit supersonic wind tunnel, the convergent-divergent (C-D) nozzle and test section are followed by a C-D diffuser to swallow the stalling shock. Here. we should have the   
A
diffuser throat larger than the nozzle throat and the shock located just at the diffuser throat.
B
diffuser throat larger than the nozzle throat and the shock located downstream of the diffuser throat.
C
diffuser throat of the same size as the nozzle tlu’oat and the shock located just at the diffuser throat.
D
diffuser throat of the same size as the nozzle throat and the shock located downstream of the diffuser throat.
Question 23
A vortex flowmeter works on the principle that the Stroithal number of 0.2 is a constant over a wide range of flow rates. If the bluff-body diameter in the flownieter is 20 mm and the piezo-electric transducer registers the vortex shedding frequency to be 10 Hz. then the velocity of the flow would be measured as    
A
0.1 rn/s
B
1 rn/s
C
10 m’s
D
100 rn/s
Question 24
The stagnation temperatures at the inlet and exit of a combustion chamber are 600 K and 1200 K. respectively. If (lie heating value of (lie fuel is 44 MJ/kg and specific heat at constant pressure for air and hot gases are 1.005 kJ/kg.K and 1.147 kJ/kg.K respectively. (lie fuel-to-air ratio is     
A
0.0018
B
0.018
C
0.18
D
1.18
Question 25
A solid propellant of density 1800 kg/rn’ has a burning rate law r = 6.65 x 10-³p⁰∙⁴⁵mm/s. where p is pressure in Pascals. It is used in a rocket niotor with a tubular grain with an initial burning area of 0.314 nr. The characteristic velocity is 1450 rn/s. XVhat should be the nozzle throat diameter to achieve an equilibrium chamber pressure of 50 bar at the end of the ignition transient?    
A
35 mm
B
38 mm
C
41 mm
D
45 mm
Question 26
The propellant in a single stage sounding rocket occupies 60% of its initial mass. If all of it is expended instantaneously at an equivalent exhaust velocity of 3000 mfs. what would be the altitude attained by the payload when launched vertically? [Neglect drag and assume acceleration due to gravity to be constant at 9.81 m/s².]    
A
315 km
B
335 km
C
365 km
D
385 km
Question 27
Buckling of the fuselage skin can be delayed by    
A
increasing internal pressure.
B
placing stiffenem farther apart.
C
reducing tkin thickness.
D
placing stiffeners farther and decreasing internal pressure.
Question 28
The maximum distance that the centre of gravity can be behind aerodynamic centre without destabilizin2 the wing—tail combination is      
A
0.4 in
B
1.4 in
C
2.4 m
D
3.4 in
Question 29
The angle of incidence of tail to trim the wing-tail combination for a 5% static margin is     
A
—1.4°
B
—0.4°
C
0.4°
D
1.4°
Question 30
What is the radial component of the fluid’s velocity at a radial location 0.5 in from the pipe axis?     
A
0.01 ui/s
B
0.1 m’s
C
1 rn/s
D
10 tm’s
Question 31
What is the tangential component of the fluids velocity at the same radial location as above?     
A
0.01 in/s
B
0.03 m’s
C
0.10 rn/s
D
0.31 ui/s
E
All of these
Question 32
The blade angle at the inlet of the rotor is      
A
25.5°
B
38.5°
C
48.5°
D
59.5°
E
All of these
Question 33
If the mass flow rate is 1 kg/s. the power required to drive the compressor is       
A
o.s kW
B
40.5 kW
C
3O. kW
D
20.5kW
E
All of these
Question 34
The internal pressnre p. at yield, based on tile VOfl Mises yield criterion, if tile vessel is floating iii space. is approximately     
A
500MPa
B
25OMPa
C
100MPa
D
2OMPa
Question 35
If the vessel is evacuated (internal pressure = 0) and subjected to external pressure. yielding according to the von Mises yield criterion (assuming elastic stability until yield)     
A
occurs at about half the pressure Pr
B
occurs at about double the pressure Py
C
occurs at about the same pressure p1..
D
never occurs.
Question 36
Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence: I to have bought a diamond ring.       
A
have a liking
B
should have liked
C
would like
D
may like
Question 37
Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence: Food piices again this month.    
A
have raised
B
have been raising
C
have been rising
D
have arose
Question 38
Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence: The adinimstrators vent on to unpiement yet another unreasonable measure, arguing that time measures were already and one more would Iiaidlv make a (hfference.     
A
reflective
B
utopian
C
luxuriant
D
unpopular
Question 39
Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence: To those of us who had always thought him tiinid his —— caine as a surprise.     
A
intrepidity
B
inevitability
C
inability
D
inertness
Question 40
The arithmetic mean of five different natural minibers is 12. The largest possible value among the numbers is    
A
12
B
40
C
50
D
60
Question 41
Two policemen. A and B. fire once each at the same time at an escaping convict. The probability that A hits the convict is three times the probability that B hits the convict. If the probability of the convict not getting injured is 0.5. the probability that B hits the conict is     
A
0.14
B
0.22
C
0.33
D
0.40
Question 42
If a prime number on division by 4 gives a remainder of 1. then that number can be expressed as    
A
sum of squares of two natural numbers
B
sum of cubes of two natural iiuinbers
C
suni of square roots of two natural numbers
D
suni of cube roots of two natural nunibers
Question 43
Two points (4. p) and (0. q) lie on a straight line having a slope of 3/4. The value of (p — q) is     
A
-3
B
0
C
3
D
4
Question 44
In the early nineteenth century theories of social evolution were inspired less by Biology than by the coniction of social scientists that there was a growing improvement iii social institutions. Progress was taken for granted and social scientists attempted to discover its laws and phases. Which one of the following inferences may be drawn with the greatest accuracy from the above passage? Social scientists  
A
did not question that progress was a fact.
B
did not approve of Biology.
C
framed the laws of progress.
D
emphasized Biology over Social Sciences.
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