KEAM Online Mock Test

KEAM  2017 (Kerala Engineering Architecture Medical Entrance Examination) Kerala-CEE.

KEAM MCQ Questions Answers for the admission in B.tech: This mock test having 25 question each, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this KEAM question are available for Physics and Chemistry details at the end of the quiz. You can also download  KEAM Previous Year Question Papers.

KEAM 2017 – Kerala Engineering Architecture Medical Entrance Examination 2017 questions answers are applicable for any kind of engineering entrance exam examination. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers KEAM Engineering/ Medical Test critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking KEAM level exam.



Congratulations - you have completed KEAM Online Mock Test = Chemistry . You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Pick out the one which does not belong to the family  
A
pepsin
B
cellulose
C
ptyalin
D
lipase
Question 2
Select the pK1 value of the strongest acid from the following:    
A
1.0
B
3.0
C
2.0
D
45
Question 3
Pick out the unsaturated fatty acid from the following:  
A
stearic acid
B
lauric acid
C
oleic acid
D
palmitic acid
Question 4
Nylon is not a    
A
condensation polymer
B
polyamide
C
copolymer
D
homopolymer
Question 5
The coal tar fraction which contains phenol is :  
A
middle oil
B
green oil
C
heavy oil
D
light oil
Question 6
2-acetoxy benzoic acid is used as an      
A
antimalarial
B
antideprssant
C
antiseptic
D
antipyretic
Question 7
Hydrogen diffuses six times faster than gas A. The molar mass of gas A is:    
A
72
B
6
C
24
D
36
Question 8
Dulong and Petit’s law is valid only for      
A
metals
B
non-metals
C
gaseous elements
D
solid elements
Question 9
The first fraction obtained during the fractiontion of petroleum is:      
A
hydrocarbon gases
B
kerosene oil
C
gasoline
D
diesel oil
Question 10
Which of the following is not an ore of magnesium?  
A
Carnallite
B
Dolomite
C
Calamine
D
Sea water
Question 11
Hydrogen bond is strongest in:    
A
S—H...O
B
O—H...S
C
F—H ….F
D
O—H..N
Question 12
The decomposition of a certain mass of CaCO3  gave 11.2dm3 of CO2 gas at STP The mass of KOH required to completely neutralise the gas is:  
A
56g
B
28g
C
42g
D
20g
Question 13
In the conversion of Br2 to BrO3, the oxidation number of Br changes from:  
A
zero to +5
B
+1 to +5
C
zero to —3
D
+2 to +5
Question 14
The mass of g1ucos that should be dissolved in 50 g of water in order to produce the same lowering of vapour pressu.re as is produced by dissolving 1 g of urea In the same quantity of water is:  
A
1g
B
3g
C
6g
D
18g
Question 15
Chemical reactions with very high Ea values are generally:  
A
very fast
B
very slow
C
moderately fast
D
spontaneous
Question 16
Which of the following does not conduct electricity?      
A
Fused NaCI
B
Solid NaCI
C
Brine solution
D
Copper
Question 17
The radii of Na and Cl- ions are 95 pm and 181 pm respectively. The edge length of NaCI unit cell is      
A
276 pm
B
138 pm
C
552 pm
D
415 pm
Question 18
When a mixture of calcium benzoate and calcium acetate is dry distilled, the resulting compound is:    
A
acetophenone
B
benzuldehyde
C
benzophenone
D
aceraldehyde
Question 19
Which of the following does not give benzoic acid on hydrolysis?      
A
Phenyl cyanide
B
Benzoyl chloride
C
Benzyl chloride
D
Methyl benzoate
Question 20
Methyl bromide is converted into ethane by heating it in ether medium with:  
A
Al
B
Zn
C
Na
D
Cu
Question 21
Which cycloalkane has the lowest heat of combustion per CH2 group?  
A
Cyclopropane
B
Cyclobutane
C
Cyclopentane
D
Cyclohexane
Question 22
A distinctive and characteristic functional group of fats is      
A
a peptide group
B
an ester group
C
an alcoholic group
D
a ketonic group
Question 23
Which of the following compound would not evolve CO when treated with NaHCO3 solution?    
A
Salicyhc acid
B
Phenol
C
Ben 701c acid
D
4-nitiobcnzoic acid
Question 24
by heating phenol with chloroform in alkali, it is converted into:       
A
salicylic acid
B
salicylaldehyde
C
anisole
D
phenyl beazoate
Question 25
Insulin regulates the metabolism of:    
A
minerals
B
amino acids
C
glucose
D
vitamins
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KEAM Online Mock Test = Physics

Congratulations - you have completed KEAM Online Mock Test = Physics. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
If a black body emits 0.5 J of energy per second when it is at 270C, then the amount of energy emitted by it when it is at 627°C will be
A
40.5 J
B
162 J
C
13.5 J
D
135 J
Question 2
A sting vibrates with a frequency of 200 Hz. When its length is doubled and tension is altered, it begins to vibrate with a frequency of 300 Hz. The ratio of the new tension to the original tension is
A
9:1
B
1:9
C
3:1
D
1:3
Question 3
How many times more intense is a 60 dB sound than a 30 dB sound?
A
1000
B
2
C
100
D
4
Question 4
The masses of two radioactive substances are same and their half-lives arc 1 yr and 2 yr respectively. The ratio of their activities after 4 yr will be
A
1:4
B
1:2
C
1:3
D
1:6
Question 5
In which of the processes, does the internal energy of the system remain constant?
A
Adiabatic
B
Isochoric
C
Isobaric
D
Isothermal
Question 6
The most stable particle in Baryon group is
A
neutron
B
omega-particle
C
proton
D
lambda-particle
Question 7
In an unbiased p-n junction
A
Potential at p is more than that at n
B
Potential at p is less than that at n
C
Potential at p is equal to that at n
D
Potential at p is +ve and that at n is -ye
Question 8
Electrons in a certain energy level n = n1, can emit 3 spectral lines. When they are in another energy level, n= n2, they can emit 6 spectral lines. The orbital speeds of the electrons in the orbits are in the ratio
A
4:3
B
3:4
C
2:1
D
1:2
Question 9
Two identical capacitors each of capacitance 5 µF are charged to potentials 2 kV and 1 kV respectively. Their -ve ends are connected together. When the +ve ends are also connected together, the loss of energy of the system is
A
160 J
B
zero
C
5 J
D
1.25 J
Question 10
An electric bulb has a rated power of 50 W are 100 V. If it is used on an AC source 200 V, 50 Hz, a choke has to be used in series within; this choke should have an inductance of
A
0.1 mH
B
1 mH
C
0.1 H
D
1.1 H
Question 11
Two bulbs rated 25 W-220 V and 100 W-220 V are connected in series to a 440 V supply. The,
A
100 W bulb fuses
B
25 W bulb fuses
C
both the bulbs fuse
D
neither of the bulb fuses
Question 12
A step-down transformer reduces the voltage of a transmission line from 2200 V to 220 V. The power delivered by it is 880 W and its efficiency is 88%. The input current is
A
4.65 mA
B
0.045 A
C
0.45 A
D
4.65 A
Question 13
A radioactive element forms its own isotope after 3 consecutive disintegrations. The particles emitted are
A
3 β-particles
B
2 β-particles and 1 α-particle
C
2 β-particles and 1 γ-particle
D
2 α-particles and 1 β-particle
Question 14
A radioactive substance contains 10000 nuclei and its half-life period is 20 days. The number of nuclei present at the end of 10 days is
A
7070
B
9000
C
8000
D
7500
Question 15
In Raman effect, Stokes’ lines are spectral lines having
A
frequency greater than that of the original line
B
wavelength equal to that of the original line
C
wavelength less than that of the original line
D
wavelength greater than that of the original line
Question 16
11 w principle of LASER action involves
A
amplification of particular frequency emitted by the system
B
population inversion
C
stimulated emission
D
all of the above
Question 17
The electromagnetic theory of light failed to explain
A
photoelectric effect
B
polarisation
C
diffraction
D
interference
Question 18
A ray of light is incident normally on one face of a right angled isosceles prism. It then grazes the hypotenuse. The refractive index of the material of the prism is
A
1.33
B
1.414
C
1.5
D
1.732
Question 19
Two thin equiconvex lenses each of focal length 0.2 m are placed coaxially with their optic centres 0.5 m apart. Then the focal length of the combination is
A
-0.4 m
B
0.4 m
C
-0.1 m
D
0.1 m
Question 20
A prism of a certain angle deviates the red and blue rays by 80 and 12° respectively. Another prism of the same angle deviates the red and blue rays by 100 and 14° respectively. The prisms are small angled and made of different materials. The dispersive powers of the materials of the prisms are in the ratio
A
5:6
B
9:11
C
6:5
D
11:9
Question 21
Water rises in plant fibres due to
A
capillarity
B
viscosity
C
fluid pressure
D
Osmosis
Question 22
During an adiabatic process, the cube of the pressure is found to be inversely proportional to the fourth power of the volume. Then the ratio of specific twats is
A
1
B
1.33
C
1.67
D
1.4
Question 23
The surface temperature of the sun which has maximum energy emission at 500 nm is 6000 K. The temperature of a star which has maximum energy emission at 400 nm will he
A
8500 K
B
4500 K
C
7500 K
D
6500 K
Question 24
310 J of heat is required to raise the temperature of 2 moles of an ideal gas at constant pressure from 25°C to 350C. The amount of heat required to raise 11w temperature of the gas through the same range at constant volume is
A
384J
B
144J
C
276J
D
452J
Question 25
A Carnot’s engine operates with source at 127°C and sinks at 27°C. If the source supplies 40 Id of heat energy, the work done by the engine is
A
30 kJ
B
10 kJ
C
4 kJ
D
1 kJ
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KEAM Online Mock Test = Biology

Congratulations - you have completed KEAM Online Mock Test = Biology. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Microtubules are absent in
A
mitochondria
B
flagella
C
spindle fibres
D
centriole
Question 2
Plant decom posers are
A
Monera and Fungi
B
Fungi and Plantae
C
Protista and Animalia
D
Animalia and Monera
Question 3
Triticale is obtained by crossing wheat with
A
oat
B
barley
C
maize
D
rye
Question 4
Occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to
A
extinction of these species from other regions
B
continental separation
C
absence of terrestrial route to these places
D
retrogressive evolution
Question 5
Basis of life are
A
nucleic acids
B
proteins
C
nucleoproteins
D
amino acids
Question 6
Life span of parrot is
A
140 years
B
60 years
C
80 years
D
40 years
Question 7
Theory of ‘saltations’ was given by
A
G Mendel
B
Hugo de Vries
C
i B S Haldane
D
Hi Miller
Question 8
The animal group which does not exist in Galapagos island is
A
Insects
B
Protozoa
C
Crustacea
D
Amphibia
Question 9
Protists obtain their food as
A
photosynthesizers only
B
chemosynthesizers
C
heterotrophs only
D
Both (a) and (c)
Question 10
Photosynthetic bacteria have
A
pigment system I
B
pigment system II
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
some other kind of pigments, B890
Question 11
Diatoms do not decay easily because
A
they have siliceous walls
B
their body is impervious to water
C
they are chitinous
D
they are abundant in saline soil
Question 12
One of these protozoans is threat to apiculture and sericulture
A
Eimeria
B
Ceratium
C
Nosema
D
Monocystis
Question 13
Ergotamine tartarate extracted from Claviceps, is used for cure of
A
bodyache
B
headache
C
fever
D
severe stomach pain
Question 14
What type of sorus is present in Nephrolepis?
A
Coenosorus
B
Simple
C
Mixed
D
None of these
Question 15
Pappus helps in dispersal of pollen in
A
Asteraceae
B
Brassicaceae
C
Malvaceae
D
Solanaceae
Question 16
In which of the following groups are seeds present?
A
Psilophyta
B
Ginkgopsida
C
Lycopodiophyta
D
Bryophyta
Question 17
One of the following is a connecting link between protozoans and poriferans
A
Cliona
B
Leucosolenia
C
Oscarella
D
Proterospongia
Question 18
The chordate features shared by the non chordates are
A
bilateral symmetry
B
triploblastic condition and bilateral symmetry
C
metamerism
D
All of the above
Question 19
If T=40%, C=10% then G =? in a pollen cell
A
40%
B
10%
C
91%
D
20%
Question 20
If a stock has 2n =48 and scion microspore mother cell has 2n =24; then root cell and the microspores will have chromosomes respectively.
A
12, 48
B
48, 12
C
24, 12
D
24, 96
Question 21
Nickel contributes to the formation of one of the following
A
urease
B
dehydrogenase
C
rubisco protein
D
nitrate reductase
Question 22
The percentage of cell surface that is impenetrable for ions is
A
1%
B
99.9%
C
90%
D
73%
Question 23
A fertilized egg of a plant has 40 chromosomes. The number of chromosomes present in the microspore mother cell is
A
20
B
40
C
60
D
80
Question 24
Genotypic and phenotypic ratio 1: 2 : 1 in the offsprings explain the principle of
A
dominance
B
blending inheritance
C
recessiveness
D
All of the above
Question 25
Satellite of chromosome is
A
rich in RNA and deficient in DNA
B
rich in DNA and deficient in RNA
C
rich in protein
D
lacks DNA
Question 26
Sickle cell anaemia is example of
A
Sex-linked inheritance
B
deficiency disease
C
autosomal heritable disease
D
infectious disease
Question 27
Translocase is an enzyme required for
A
DNA replication
B
RNA synthesis
C
initiation of protein synthesis
D
protein synthesis chain elongation
Question 28
Feathery stigma belongs to
A
Wheat
B
Pea
C
Datura
D
Caesalpinia
Question 29
Inflorescence of Liliaceae is
A
actinomorphic
B
trimerous
C
pentamerous
D
imperfect
Question 30
Bone marrow is absent in
A
reptilia
B
amphibia
C
fishes
D
birds
Question 31
The property of semipermeability belongs to
A
cell wall
B
plasma membrane
C
mitochondria only
D
None of the above
Question 32
Translocation of photosynthetic end products in sieve tubes is
A
3-5 mm/h
B
3-5 cm/h
C
1-15 cm/h
D
60-100 cm/h
Question 33
Epidermis is specialized for
A
respiration
B
absorption
C
protection
D
All of these
Question 34
The pH of stomach is 1.6, then which enzyme will digest protein?
A
Trypsin
B
Pepsin
C
Amylase
D
Erypsin
Question 35
The normal type of embryo sac is 8-nucleated and
A
8-celled
B
7-celled
C
6-celled
D
5-celled
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