Basic Engineering & Sciences Mock Test

Basic Engineering & Sciences MCQ Questions Answers for PGCET/ME exams  . This mock test having 60 questions in each subjects, with four choices. On each click on answers system will tell you where the answers is correct or incorrect. You can view this Basic Engineering & Sciences test question details at the end of the quiz.

Basic Engineering & Sciences Mock Test

Basic Engineering & Sciences questions answers are applicable for any kind of Engineering Entrance and PGCET preparation in India like GATE, TANCET. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers Basic Engineering & Sciences critical type papers in short time and this can be a big factor for cracking all India level exam.

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Basic Engineering & Sciences Mock Test

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Question 1
Zeroth Law of thermodynamics defines          
A
internal energy
B
enthalpy
C
temperature
D
pressure
Question 2
A heat engine is supplied with 800 kJ/sec of heat at 600 K and heat rejection takes place at 300 k. Which one of the following results report a reversible cycle?          
A
200 kJ/sec are rejected
B
400 kJ/sec are rejected
C
100 kJ/sec are rejected
D
500 kJ/sec are rejected
Question 3
If a system neither exchanges mass nor energy with the surroundings, it is known as        
A
segregated system
B
semi closed system
C
closed system
D
isolated system
Question 4
If a magnet is broken into two pieces, each piece processes two poles. The strength of the new poles is ___________ as the poles of original magnet.        
A
same
B
one half
C
double
D
triple
Question 5
When a dielectric is inserted into the gap of a capacitor, the capacitance always        
A
decrease
B
remain same
C
increase
D
goes to zero
Question 6
The electrons in a cooper pair have        
A
Equal and same spins
B
Equal and opposite spins
C
Unequal spins
D
None of the above
Question 7
White light passes through two slits 0.5mm apart, and an interference pattern is observed on a screen 2.5 m away. The first order fringe resembles a rainbow with violet and red light at opposite ends. The violet light is about 2 mm from the centre of central white fringe. The wavelength for the violet light is      
A
200nm
B
350nm
C
400nm
D
500nm
Question 8
The shortest wavelength X-ray photon emitted in an X-ray tube subjected to 50 kV will be (Planck’s constant = 6.63 x 10-19 J.S, speed of light in vacuum = 3.0 x 108 m/s and charge of electron = 1.6 x 10-19 C)        
A
2.5 nm
B
0.25 nm
C
0.0025 nm
D
0.025 nm
Question 9
A sodium surface is illuminated with light having a wavelength of 300 nm. The work function for sodium metal is 2.46 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons is      
A
1.67 eV
B
16.7 eV
C
0.16 eV
D
167 eV
Question 10
Which one of the following phenomena does not effect the direction of wave light?  
A
Dispersion
B
Diffraction
C
Polarisation
D
Refraction
Question 11
A person shines coherent light through an object A. Which produces a pattern of concentric rings on a screen B. A is most likely          
A
a single slit
B
a pinhole
C
a multiple- slit diffraction grating
D
a polarization filter
Question 12
A perfect or an ideal fluid is one that is        
A
a real fluid
B
which obeys perfect gas laws
C
compressive and gaseous
D
incompressible and frictionless
Question 13
In a sample of water an increases is pressure by 18Mpa caused 0.5% reduction in the volume. The bulk modulus of elasticity for the sample in Mpa is      
A
3.6
B
360
C
3600
D
0.36
Question 14
Streamline, pathline and streakline are identical when the flow is  
A
steady
B
uniform
C
unsteady
D
neighter steady nor uniform
Question 15
The chemical Oxygen demand (COD) test is used to measure        
A
non biodegradable organics
B
bio- degradable organics
C
non- biodegradable inorganics
D
bio- degradable inorganics
Question 16
A DC series motor should not be run at no load, because it will        
A
draw a dangerously large current
B
stall
C
run at a dangerously high speed
D
draw a dangerously high current and run at a dangerously high speed
Question 17
Power input to a transformer on no load at rated voltage comprises predominantly        
A
Cooper loss
B
Hysteresis loss
C
Core loss
D
Eddy current loss
Question 18
In a generating synchronous machine, The rotor field  
A
lags the stator field and electromagnetic torque is developed in a direction opposite to the direction of rotation of rotor.
B
lags the stator field and electromagnetic torque is developed in the direction of rotation of the rotor
C
leads the stator field and electromagnetic torque is developed in the direction opposite to that of rotation of the rotor
D
leads the stator field and electromagnetic torque is developed in the direction of rotation of the rotor
Question 19
Absolute instruments are those which        
A
gives the magnitude of the quantity under measurement of the instruments
B
directly indicate the measured quantity on a display unit
C
are calibrated by comparison with a secondary instrument
D
are very popularly used
Question 20
Moving coil instrument can be used for measurements at  
A
high frequencies
B
low frequencies
C
only DC
D
both AC and DC
Question 21
Storages class static can be used to        
A
restrict the scope of an external identifier
B
preserve the exit value of variables
C
provide privacy to a set of functions
D
all of the above
Question 22
In a C expression involving ll operator evaluation        
A
will be stopped in one of its components evaluates to false
B
will be stopped in one of its components evaluates to true
C
takes place from right to left
D
takes place from left to right
Question 23
Analog system are different from digital systems because they          
A
use transistors
B
handle information analog form
C
handle information in digital form
D
are slow
Question 24
Which one of the following is not a form of memory?          
A
Instruction cache
B
Instruction register
C
Instruction opcode
D
Translation lookaside buffer
Question 25
In which one of the following gates the ouput is 1, if and only if at least one input is 1?      
A
NOR
B
AND
C
OR
D
NAND
Question 26
The variables which can be accessed by all modules in a program are called        
A
local variables
B
internal variables
C
external variables
D
global variables
Question 27
Which one of the following is useful in traversing a given graph by breadth first search?          
A
Stack
B
Set
C
List
D
Queue
Question 28
Carbonisation involves          
A
destructive distillation of coal in the absence of air
B
heating coal obtain coke by roasting
C
heating coal to remove moisture by distillation
D
destructive distillation of coal in air to form coke
Question 29
Reforming is carried out in refinery to        
A
produce straight run gasoline
B
remove sulphur
C
increases the boiling range to the product
D
rearrange the molecular structure of the feel hydrocarbons
Question 30
If the order of a reaction with respect to [OH-]= -1, the hydroxide ion acts as          
A
a promoter
B
an inhibitor
C
a catalyst
D
a moderator
Question 31
The location reagent used for the detection of amino acid spots in TLC is          
A
Phosphoric acid
B
Dinitrosalicylic acid
C
Ninhydrin
D
Glacial acetic acid
Question 32
Which one of the following chemicals is used for sample preparation for recording IR spectra?        
A
Calcium chloride
B
Liquid paraffin
C
Ethanol
D
Sodium iodide
Question 33
The theorem used for equilibrium of concurrent coplanar forces is          
A
Varignon’s Theorem
B
Lame’s Theorem
C
Parallel Axis Theorem
D
Perpendicular Axis Theorem
Question 34
The path traced by the particle which thrown at an angle ‘Ɵ’ with respect to horizontal is            
A
straight line
B
parabola
C
triangle
D
ellipse
Question 35
Frictional force depends on the            
A
type of two surfaces in contact and normal reaction
B
Material strength of the surfaces in contact
C
Area of contact of the two surfaces
D
Facture toughness of the two materials is contact
Question 36
How the area moment of inertia of the beam of rectangular cross- section can be increased?            
A
Depth of the beam is greater than the width of the beam cross- section
B
Depth of the beam is equal to width of the beam cross- section
C
Depth of the beam is less than the width of the beam cross- section
D
Cannot be increased
Question 37
A mode of fracture that is attended by extensive plastic deformation is called          
A
Brittle fracture
B
Ductile fracture
C
Plastic fracture
D
Fatigue fracture
Question 38
The material in which spontaneous polarization changes with temperature is known as          
A
Piezo electric
B
Ferro electric
C
Pyro electric
D
Magneto optic
Question 39
The dielectric constant of the commonly used ceramics varies between            
A
1 and 3
B
4 and 10
C
11 and 16
D
16 and 25
Question 40
The Reynolds number for a 25 mm diameter sphere moving with velocity of 3 m/s through an oil of specific gravity 0.90 and μ = 0.1 Pa.s. is            
A
675
B
6622
C
66220
D
0.675
Question 41
The maximum velocity divided by the average velocity in laminar Poisseuille flow between two parallel plates is            
A
2
B
1.5
C
1.25
D
0.8
Question 42
Boundary layer separation is caused by            
A
Reduction of pressure in the flow direction
B
Pressure of adverse pressure gradient
C
Pressure of favourable pressure gradient
D
Reduction of boundary layer thickness
Question 43
Principle of jet propulsion is utilized in          
A
Car
B
Pump
C
Satellite
D
Ship
Question 44
Ohm’s Law is applicable to          
A
Silicon carbide
B
Zener diode
C
Voltage regulator tubes
D
Copper
Question 45
Bridge that is used for two resistance measurement is          
A
Wheatstone bridge
B
Kelvin’s double bridge
C
Maxwell’s bridge
D
Anderson’s bridge
Question 46
If the dimensions of all the parts of a synchronous generator, and the number of field and armature turns are doubled, then the generated voltage will change by a factor of          
A
1
B
2
C
4
D
8
Question 47
Zeroth law of thermodynamics postulate          
A
Thermodynamic equilibrium
B
Heat equilibrium
C
Temperature equilibrium
D
Thermal equilibrium
Question 48
In a nozzle flow in thermodynamics          
A
M = 0
B
W = 0
C
E = 0
D
V = 0
Question 49
Clausius in equality is applicable for            
A
Heat engines
B
Heat generators
C
Refrigerators
D
Cooling towers
Question 50
Convert 0.9375 to binary          
A
0.0111
B
0.1011
C
0.1111
D
None of these
Question 51
(1a00*10b) / 1010 = 100  
A
a = 0, b = 0
B
a = 0, b = 1
C
a = 1, b = 0
D
a = 1, b = 1
Question 52
Find the output for the following C program Main () { Char*p1=”Name”; Char*p2; P2=(char*malloc(20); While(*p2++=*p1++); Printf(‘’%s\n”,p2); }  
A
Empty String
B
Name
C
Name\\\
D
Error
Question 53
Find the output for the following C program Main () { int x=5; printf(‘’%d %d %d\n”, x, x < <2, x > > 2); }  
A
5 20 1
B
5 10 2
C
5 20 5
D
5 10 1
Question 54
From the following four choices, find the odd man out          
A
INTEL
B
MOTOROLA
C
NEC
D
IBM
Question 55
From the following four choices, find the odd man out with reference to computer terminology.          
A
ROM
B
PROM
C
EPROM
D
EEPROM
Question 56
In radiography x- rays are used because x- rays            
A
get diffracted inside the object through which it penetrates
B
are differentially absorbed by the inhomogenity of the material through which it passes
C
produce heat effect
D
are harmless radiation
Question 57
The idea of the quantum nature of light is required to explain            
A
interference of light
B
thermionic emission
C
Radioactivity
D
Blackbody radiation
Question 58
The wavelength of emission from He- Ne laser is            
A
10.64 μm
B
337.1 nm
C
694.3 nm
D
632.8 nm
Question 59
An optical fibers has a core materials of refractive index of 1.55 and cladding material of refractive index of 1.50. The numerical aperture of the fabre is            
A
0.05
B
0.39
C
3.05
D
0.90
Question 60
Which of the following statement regarding the absorption of a gas on a solid is correct? I. The amount of gas absorbed increases with increase in pressure II. The amount of gas absorbed increases with increase in temperature III. The amount of gas absorbed increases with increase in the area of the absorbent          
A
I and II
B
I and III
C
II and III
D
I, II and III
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