Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz Question Answers

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Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz 20 Question Answers

Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz = 20 MCQs

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Question 1
The mental foramen is usually located
A
below the first premolar tooth
B
between the first and second premolar teeth
C
below the first molar tooth
D
between the first and second molar teeth
Question 2
The investigation of a case of velopharyngeal insufficiency is best done by
A
Nasoendoscopy
B
Nasoendoscopy + Videoflouroscopy
C
Videoflouroscopy
D
C.T. Scan
Question 3
Which of the following bone has two cruciate pulleys attached to it?
A
Metacarpal bone
B
Proximal Phalanx
C
Middle Phalanx
D
Distal Phalanx
Question 4
Which of the following suture is broken down by proteolysis
A
Catgut
B
Polyamide
C
Polygalctin
D
Polyglyconate
Question 5
Most severe metabolic demand is seen in
A
60%Burns
B
Multi organ failure
C
Peritonitis
D
Fracture radius
Question 6
Clinical examination of Naso-orbito-ethmoid fracture reveals
A
Telecanthus
B
Hypertelorism
C
Acute nasolabial angle
D
Increase dorsal nasal projection
Question 7
Boundaries of Guyon's canal include all except
A
Transverse carpal ligament
B
Crest of trapezium
C
Volar carpal ligament
D
Pissiform
Question 8
Grafts containing multiple types of tissues are called
A
Composite Grafts
B
Complex Grafts
C
Wolfe's Grafts
D
Thiersch's Grafts
Question 9
The best way to preserve the amputated part for reimplantation is :
A
Store it directly in the crushed ice
B
Store it directly in chilled saline
C
Wrap it in a moist saline gauze and store it in freezer compartment
D
Wrap it in moist saline gauze and keep it in a plastic bag which is then kept in a box containing crushed ice
Question 10
Fracture Zygoma needs operative treatment :
A
In all patients
B
In young patients only
C
If there is difficulty in opening the mouth
D
If there is bleeding from the nose
Question 11
The deltopectoral flap:
A
Is a flap based upon pectoral branch of thoracoacromial artery
B
Can be used for breast reconstruction
C
Is very suitable for reconstruction of head neck region in persons with long neck and small shoulders
D
Is also known as Backamjian flap
Question 12
Tangential excision of burns is recommended for which of the following burns:  
A
Deep dermal burns of the hands
B
Acid burns of the face
C
90% deep burns
D
Burns in the perineum
Question 13
All of following statements concerning Z-plasty are correct except:
A
Two triangular flaps are interchanged
B
There is gain in absolute length along the scar
C
60 degree Z-plasty results in 75% gain along the central member
D
Smaller the angle, greater is the length gained
Question 14
Which of the following auricular anatomy is affected in Leprosy
A
Helix
B
Antihelix
C
Concha
D
Lobule
Question 15
Serial excision of scar  
A
It utilize viscoelastic properties of skin
B
Results in a longer scar than it would have been if the scar were excised in one go with elliptical excision
C
Leads to pincushion effect
D
Is likely to lead to repeated breakdown of suture line
Question 16
Washio flap used for nasal reconstruction is :
A
Preauricular flap
B
Scalping flap
C
Ipsilateral retroauricular-temporal flap
D
Contralateral retroauricular-temporal flap
Question 17
A morphologic defect of an organ, part of an organ, or a larger area of the body resulting from intrinsically abnormal development during the development process is :
A
Malformation
B
Deformation
C
Disruption
D
Anomaly
Question 18
The commonest cause of fever in a burn patient is :
A
burn wound infection
B
release of pyrogens from the thermally damaged tissue
C
septicemia
D
decreased sweating
Question 19
In Stage I pressure sore there is
A
Intact skin but erythema persists>1hr after relief of pressure
B
Intact skin but erythema disappears after relief of pressure
C
Blister/s only
D
Break in dermis only
Question 20
The muscle necrosis due to electrical damage can best be detected by:
A
Technetium - 99 scan
B
Xenon-133 scan
C
1-131 scan
D
Fluroscein dye
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Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz 80 Question Answers

Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz = 80 MCQs

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Question 1
Which of the following statements regarding the anatomy of the platysma muscle is correct:
A
It is a paired muscle innervated by the external laryngeal branch of the Superior laryngeal nerve.
B
It originates from the fascia of the pectoralis major and deltoid muscles.
C
It ascends in the neck to insert on the alveolar border of the mandible.
D
It is not a part of The SMAS layer of the face
Question 2
The tarsal plate of the lower lid:
A
Is a vestigial part
B
Gives support to the lid to keep it in contact with the globe
C
Is unaffected in facial palsy
D
Is a part of the orbicularis occuli muscle
Question 3
Hemifacial atrophy
A
Generally involves the Greater auricular nerve dermatome
B
Is seen soon after birth
C
Involves only the subcutaneous tissue
D
Is also Known as Parry Romberg's disease
Question 4
Blow out fracture of the orbit generally involves:
A
Roof of the orbit
B
Lateral wall orbit
C
Medial wall of the orbit
D
Floor of the orbit
Question 5
The following muscle is one of the elevators of the lid:
A
Muller's muscle
B
Tarsal part of orbicularis occuli
C
Levator Palpebre Superioris
D
Frontalis muscle
Question 6
The lacrimal gland
A
Secretes tears that keep the eyes moist
B
Is divided into 3 parts by the orbital septum
C
Is supplied by nasocilliary nerve
D
Is divided into 2 parts by Muller's muscle
Question 7
For a facial scar that is running at right angles to the RSTL on face, the following technique is useful:
A
W-plasty
B
V plasty
C
M-plasty
D
Z-Plasty
Question 8
Z plasty is general used for:
A
Shortening the scar
B
Creating less tension on the suture line
C
Decreasing the use of suture material required for closure of wound
D
Effacement of scars in regions like 1st web space.
Question 9
Geometric Broken Line Wound Closure(GBLWC)
A
Is a technique that lengthens the scar
B
Makes the hypertrophic scar flat
C
Takes into account the peculiar anatomy of the concerned region
D
Makes the scar look less visible by optical illusion
Question 10
A 90 degree Z plasty
A
Lengthens the scar by 50%
B
The movements of the flaps is easier as compared to a 60 degree design
C
Is useful in web space contractures for deepening of the web
D
Is more useful on face
Question 11
Which of the following is adviseable after a raised scar on face after 3 months of trauma:
A
Immediate scar revision
B
Kenacort Injections
C
Pressure , massage and waiting for about one year
D
Multiple z Plasty
Question 12
The Z Plasty :
A
Is a rotaion flap
B
A transposition flap
C
An advancement flap
D
An interpolation flap
Question 13
Tensor veli palatini ?
A
Originates from first brancial arch
B
Is supplied by vagus nerve
C
Arises from fourth branchial arch
D
Is supplied by superior laryngeal nerve
Question 14
Soft tissue injuries involving facial nerve branches
A
One can not accurately test function of facial nerve soon after trauma
B
The buccal branches medial to lateral canthus can be left untreated if transected
C
The exploration should be undertaken after 48 hours only
D
Nerve regeneration in facial nerve after the repair occurs at the rate of 2mm/day
Question 15
The zygomatic arch
A
Is more curved than straight
B
Can lead to trismus in fracture zygoma
C
Should never be fixed if fractured
D
Can be removed if fractured in many parts without any deformity
Question 16
In karapendzic flap for lip reconstruction:
A
The lip competence is maintained
B
There is no microstomia
C
The lip pout is good
D
There is minimal perioral scarring
Question 17
Which of the following will NOT impede wound healing
A
Diabetes mellitus
B
Venous stasis
C
Wound moisture
D
Colchicine
Question 18
Rhinophyma is most commonly associated with:
A
Telangiatasis
B
Sebaceous hyperplasia
C
Acanthosis
D
Ulceration
Question 19
The palmar interossie
A
Are 4 in number
B
The muscles are bipennate
C
Are abductors of fingers
D
Get inserted on the proximal phalanx
Question 20
A keloid is characterized by the following except
A
May occur after Trivial trauma
B
Usually recurs after excision
C
Overgrows beyond original wound
D
Can regresses over an extended period
Question 21
The extent of the burn can be estimated by the "Rule of nine". It was described by
A
Pulaski and Tennison
B
Wallace
C
Lund and Browder
D
Gillies
Question 22
Soft triangle of the nose is composed of
A
Skin fold
B
Cartilage
C
Fibrous tissue
D
Nasalis muscle
Question 23
In the Glasgow coma scale, the following responses are assessed except    
A
Best verbal response
B
Eyes open response
C
Best motor response
D
Tongue protrusion response
Question 24
In a bilateral subcondylar fracture of mandible, the patient would have a
A
Normal occlusion
B
Lateral cross bite deformity
C
Anterior open bite deformity
D
Posterior open bite deformity
Question 25
A case of Treacher Collins syndrome will have a combination of which of the following Tessier clefts
A
No. 3,4,5
B
No. 4,5,6
C
No. 5,6,7
D
No. 6,7,8
Question 26
The hallmark sign of haemangioma is
A
Erythematous macular patch at birth
B
Female predilection
C
Rapid growth in early months of life
D
Rubbery consistency
Question 27
The specific ultraviolet radiation band responsible for skin carcinogenesis is
A
UVA
B
UVB
C
UVC
D
UVD
Question 28
In the Kessler's tendon suture procedure the knot lies
A
In the proximal part of the tendon
B
In the distal part of the tendon
C
In between the two cut ends of the tendon
D
Outside the two cut ends of the tendon
Question 29
The carpal tunnel allows passage of how many structures (tendons and nerves) through it
A
Eight
B
Ten
C
Twelve
D
Nine
Question 30
The carpal tunnel is located in
A
Zone 1
B
Zone 2
C
Zone 3
D
Zone 4
Question 31
Repair of cleft lip is indicated
A
to ensure development of normal speech
B
for cosmetic reasons
C
to ensure proper sucking by the infant
D
for development of proper dentition
Question 32
The Plastic Surgeon who has won Nobel Prize is
A
Harold Gilles
B
Dupuytren
C
Joseph Murray
D
Michael Debakey
Question 33
A deltopectoral flap is
A
Random pattern flap
B
Is more suitable for people with long neck and narrow
C
A flap of choice for microvascular tissue transfer
D
Is based upon perforators of internal mammary artery
Question 34
One of the following conditions is not associated with bleeding from the nose:
A
fracture zygoma
B
fracture nose
C
Fracture maxilla
D
fracture ascending ramus of mandible
Question 35
The most physiological solution for burn resuscitation is:
A
5% dextrose solution
B
Plasma
C
Ringer lactate
D
Normal saline
Question 36
Respiratory obstruction is likely to occur with
A
Bilateral parasymphseal fractures
B
Alveolar fracture of maxilla
C
Fracture nose
D
Fracture of the ascending ramus
Question 37
Which tissue was used by Sushrata for making nose?
A
Cheek
B
Forearm
C
Arm
D
Scalp
Question 38
Angiosome theory was given by
A
A Nyhus
B
Mathes
C
Taylor
D
Gilles
Question 39
All the following muscles are supplied by the facial nerve except the
A
Anterior digastic
B
Posterior digastic
C
Cornigator
D
Procerus
Question 40
In " bat ear" deformity      
A
The cephaloauricular angle is decreased
B
The concha is shallow
C
There is absence of antihelical fold
D
The ear is crumpled
Question 41
Abnormally elevated lower lip on ipsilateral in marginal mandibular nerve palsy is caused by loss of function of
A
Mentalis muscle
B
Depressor anguli oris
C
Zygomatic major muscle
D
Orbicularis oris muscle
Question 42
In radial nerve palsy in the arm there is
A
Loss of opponens movement of thumb
B
Clawing deformity of fingers
C
Weakness of brachioradialis muscle
D
Loss of wrist extension
Question 43
In ideal 'Z' plasty:
A
The three limbs of 'Z' should be equal
B
The angle between the limbs should be as small as possible
C
The gain in length is minimal
D
The surrounding skin should be scarred
Question 44
Fixed unit of hand consists of
A
2nd and 3rd metacarpal along with distal carpal row
B
3rd and 4th metacarpal along with distal carpal row
C
4th and 5th metacarpal along with distal carpal row
D
2nd and 3rd metacarpal
Question 45
In electrical burns of extremities
A
Skin involvement is more than muscle involvement
B
Superficial muscles are more extensively damaged than the deeper muscles
C
Renal shut down may occur very rapidly if inadequately ressuscitated
D
Fluid requirement is minimal
Question 46
The Urethera
A
Is inside the corpora cavernosa
B
Is inside the corpora spongiosum
C
Is surrounded by tunica albugenia on the outside.
D
Always reaches the tip of penis in hypospadias
Question 47
The pivot point for a deltopectoral flap is
A
Medial end of upper border
B
Medial end of lower border
C
Center of upper border
D
Center of lower border
Question 48
In a random skin flap
A
Blood supply is through dermal and subdermal plexus
B
Length to width ratio has no relation to flap survival
C
Are sturdier than axial skin flaps
D
Can be raised as an island flap
Question 49
The following features are present in midpenile hypospadias except one:
A
Ventral chordee
B
Normal prepuce
C
Proximally placed uretheral meatus
D
Blind sinuses in the uretheral plate
Question 50
Early signs of an impending "Pressure Sore" are:
A
Loss of sensation of skin
B
Persistent non -blanching erythema of skin
C
Low grade fever
D
Pallor of skin
Question 51
Which of following is an example of advancement flap
A
Limberg flap
B
Doufermental flap
C
V to Y closure
D
Bilobed flap
Question 52
Which of the following is a prime flexor of metacarpophalangeal joint ?
A
Flexor digitorum superficials
B
Flexor digitorum profundus
C
Flexor carpi radialis
D
Lumbricals
Question 53
The parotid duct is represented by the middle third of a line drawn between the :
A
The tragus and the tip of the nose
B
The tragus and the angle of the mouth
C
The tragus and the midportion of upper lip
D
The tragus and the midportion of lower lip
Question 54
In hypertelorism which of the following structure is mainly responsible for the deformity :
A
Crista galli
B
Cribriform plate
C
Ethmoidal air cells
D
Sphenoidal air cells
Question 55
In trap door scar
A
There is pin cushioning effect
B
The scar line is always zigzag
C
There is obstruction to blood flow
D
There is no need for surgical intervention as this is likely to settle on its own
Question 56
Marjolin's ulcer
A
Usually a basal cell carcinoma
B
Occurs in chronic ulcers
C
Has a very poor prognosis even early stages
D
Spreads to regional lymph nodes even in early stages
Question 57
Dish face deformity    
A
Results as a result of improperly treated fracture maxilla
B
Results because of malunited naso-orbito-ethmoid fracture
C
Results because of mandibular retrusion
D
May happen in temporomandibular joint ankylosis
Question 58
Meshing of the skin graft:
A
Helps in increasing the surface area of the graft
B
Results in better quality cover
C
Is recommended only for small areas
D
Results in better cosmetic result
Question 59
Which of the following is an absorbabale suture
A
Silk
B
Polyamide
C
Polyglactin
D
Stainless steel
Question 60
In hemangioma
A
The endothelium is normal
B
There are no mitosis seen
C
The lesion is present at birth
D
The lesion shows waxing and waning of growth
Question 61
In a linear contracture of the finger
A
A large single z -plasty will give the best results
B
Multiple small z-plasties will be ideal
C
W -plasty will be best
D
V-Y advancement is likely to be the best
Question 62
Proud flesh is the term used to describe
A
Granulation tissue
B
Muscle protruding through skin wound
C
Hypertrophy of tongue
D
Lipoma
Question 63
After repair of the cleft palate in early child hood
A
The maxillary arch collapses
B
The maxillary arch remain unafected
C
The madibular arch collapses
D
The mandibular arch expands
Question 64
In Claw hand deformity
A
The M.P. joints are flexed and the I.P. joints are extended
B
The M.P. joints are hyper-extended and I.P .joints are flexed
C
Both M.P. joints and I.P. joints are acutely flexed
D
Both M.P. joints and I.P. joints are hyper -extended
Question 65
A 6 month old child sustains deep flame burns involving entire posterior trunk and buttocks and anterior and posterior head and neck. The burn size is estimated to be:
A
20%
B
15%
C
30%
D
37%
Question 66
The last muscle to be supplied by ulnar N is:  
A
Adductor digit minimi
B
1st dorsal interosseous muscle
C
Adductor pollicis
D
Flexor pollicis
Question 67
Meleney's infection is caused by
A
Clostridia
B
Microaerophilic streptococci
C
Staphylococci
D
Beta hemolytic streptococci
Question 68
Single most important factor for development of decubitus ulcer is
A
Unrelieved pressure
B
Associated neurologic injury
C
Poor nutritional status
D
Repeated trauma
Question 69
Angle's classification classifies
A
Nasal fractures
B
Zygomatic fractures
C
Mandibular fractures
D
Dental occlusion
Question 70
Cribrifrom plate is a part of
A
Frontal bone
B
Nasal bone
C
Sphenoid
D
Ethmoid
Question 71
All are features of burn hand claw deformity except
A
MP joint extension
B
PIP joint flexion
C
DIP joint flexion
D
Thumb abduction
Question 72
In burns, transient leucopenia may occur secondary to application of
A
Mafenide
B
Silver Nitrate
C
Silver sulphadiazine
D
Eusol
Question 73
Main blood supply of palatal mucoperiosteum is
A
Nasopalatine artery
B
Greater palatine artery
C
Ascending palatine artery
D
Lesser palatine artery
Question 74
In classic facelift, plane of dissection in temporal area is      
A
In subdermal plexus
B
Subcutaneous
C
Deep to superficial temporal fascia
D
Deep to galea
Question 75
The Characterstic features of Submucous cleft are:
A
Mental retardation
B
Speech is always normal
C
The patient has regurgitation of food into the nose
D
Notching of the posterior border of hard palate
Question 76
In cleft palate
A
The palatal muscle are abnormally inserted but have normal origin
B
The palatal movements are normal
C
The muscles are normally inserted but have abnormal origin
D
Some muscle are normally inserted and some are abnormally inserted
Question 77
In hemi- facial atrophy
A
The symptoms appear soon after the birth
B
There is autosomal dominant inheritance
C
The surgical treatment should wait till the disease becomes quiet
D
There is atrophy of only the skeletal elements; rest of the structures in the affected area are normal
Question 78
Which of the following findings are most consistent with Apert Syndrome?
A
Normal midface growth
B
Unicoronal synostosis
C
Hypotelorism
D
Complex syndactyly
Question 79
The adequacy of debridement is best assessed by:
A
color of the soft tissue
B
brisk subdermal bleeding
C
bright red color of the underlying muscle
D
turger of the tissue
Question 80
The Which of the following palatal muscles is most important in development of normal speech:
A
Palatoglossus
B
Palatopharyngeus
C
Tensor tympani
D
Levator palate
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