Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz Question Answers

Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz Question Answers Free Online Test For Medical Students like (PHD, M.Ch., D.M), Nurse related exam entrance.

We have put total 100 Objective Type Question Answers on Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz, you can practice these question answers for free. Well these MCQs test question comes from different areas on Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz.

This Reconstructive Surgery Quiz questions answers are applicable for any kind of medical PG entrance exam or job related exam especially for PHD, M.Ch., D.M, related exam. You can practice as much as you can to gather knowledge of how to answers Plastic Surgery  Quiz, each question having four alternate answers, once you select one answers of Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz, system will show you whether its correct or not.

Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz 20 Question Answers

Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz = 20 MCQs

Congratulations - you have completed Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz = 20 MCQs. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
The mental foramen is usually located
A
below the first premolar tooth
B
between the first and second premolar teeth
C
below the first molar tooth
D
between the first and second molar teeth
Question 2
The investigation of a case of velopharyngeal insufficiency is best done by
A
Nasoendoscopy
B
Nasoendoscopy + Videoflouroscopy
C
Videoflouroscopy
D
C.T. Scan
Question 3
Which of the following bone has two cruciate pulleys attached to it?
A
Metacarpal bone
B
Proximal Phalanx
C
Middle Phalanx
D
Distal Phalanx
Question 4
Which of the following suture is broken down by proteolysis
A
Catgut
B
Polyamide
C
Polygalctin
D
Polyglyconate
Question 5
Most severe metabolic demand is seen in
A
60%Burns
B
Multi organ failure
C
Peritonitis
D
Fracture radius
Question 6
Clinical examination of Naso-orbito-ethmoid fracture reveals
A
Telecanthus
B
Hypertelorism
C
Acute nasolabial angle
D
Increase dorsal nasal projection
Question 7
Boundaries of Guyon's canal include all except
A
Transverse carpal ligament
B
Crest of trapezium
C
Volar carpal ligament
D
Pissiform
Question 8
Grafts containing multiple types of tissues are called
A
Composite Grafts
B
Complex Grafts
C
Wolfe's Grafts
D
Thiersch's Grafts
Question 9
The best way to preserve the amputated part for reimplantation is :
A
Store it directly in the crushed ice
B
Store it directly in chilled saline
C
Wrap it in a moist saline gauze and store it in freezer compartment
D
Wrap it in moist saline gauze and keep it in a plastic bag which is then kept in a box containing crushed ice
Question 10
Fracture Zygoma needs operative treatment :
A
In all patients
B
In young patients only
C
If there is difficulty in opening the mouth
D
If there is bleeding from the nose
Question 11
The deltopectoral flap:
A
Is a flap based upon pectoral branch of thoracoacromial artery
B
Can be used for breast reconstruction
C
Is very suitable for reconstruction of head neck region in persons with long neck and small shoulders
D
Is also known as Backamjian flap
Question 12
Tangential excision of burns is recommended for which of the following burns:  
A
Deep dermal burns of the hands
B
Acid burns of the face
C
90% deep burns
D
Burns in the perineum
Question 13
All of following statements concerning Z-plasty are correct except:
A
Two triangular flaps are interchanged
B
There is gain in absolute length along the scar
C
60 degree Z-plasty results in 75% gain along the central member
D
Smaller the angle, greater is the length gained
Question 14
Which of the following auricular anatomy is affected in Leprosy
A
Helix
B
Antihelix
C
Concha
D
Lobule
Question 15
Serial excision of scar  
A
It utilize viscoelastic properties of skin
B
Results in a longer scar than it would have been if the scar were excised in one go with elliptical excision
C
Leads to pincushion effect
D
Is likely to lead to repeated breakdown of suture line
Question 16
Washio flap used for nasal reconstruction is :
A
Preauricular flap
B
Scalping flap
C
Ipsilateral retroauricular-temporal flap
D
Contralateral retroauricular-temporal flap
Question 17
A morphologic defect of an organ, part of an organ, or a larger area of the body resulting from intrinsically abnormal development during the development process is :
A
Malformation
B
Deformation
C
Disruption
D
Anomaly
Question 18
The commonest cause of fever in a burn patient is :
A
burn wound infection
B
release of pyrogens from the thermally damaged tissue
C
septicemia
D
decreased sweating
Question 19
In Stage I pressure sore there is
A
Intact skin but erythema persists>1hr after relief of pressure
B
Intact skin but erythema disappears after relief of pressure
C
Blister/s only
D
Break in dermis only
Question 20
The muscle necrosis due to electrical damage can best be detected by:
A
Technetium - 99 scan
B
Xenon-133 scan
C
1-131 scan
D
Fluroscein dye
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results
There are 20 questions to complete.
List
Return
Shaded items are complete.
12345
678910
1112131415
1617181920
End
Return

Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz 80 Question Answers

Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz = 80 MCQs

Congratulations - you have completed Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Quiz = 80 MCQs. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which of the following statements regarding the anatomy of the platysma muscle is correct:
A
It is a paired muscle innervated by the external laryngeal branch of the Superior laryngeal nerve.
B
It originates from the fascia of the pectoralis major and deltoid muscles.
C
It ascends in the neck to insert on the alveolar border of the mandible.
D
It is not a part of The SMAS layer of the face
Question 2
The tarsal plate of the lower lid:
A
Is a vestigial part
B
Gives support to the lid to keep it in contact with the globe
C
Is unaffected in facial palsy
D
Is a part of the orbicularis occuli muscle
Question 3
Hemifacial atrophy
A
Generally involves the Greater auricular nerve dermatome
B
Is seen soon after birth
C
Involves only the subcutaneous tissue
D
Is also Known as Parry Romberg's disease
Question 4
Blow out fracture of the orbit generally involves:
A
Roof of the orbit
B
Lateral wall orbit
C
Medial wall of the orbit
D
Floor of the orbit
Question 5
The following muscle is one of the elevators of the lid:
A
Muller's muscle
B
Tarsal part of orbicularis occuli
C
Levator Palpebre Superioris
D
Frontalis muscle
Question 6
The lacrimal gland
A
Secretes tears that keep the eyes moist
B
Is divided into 3 parts by the orbital septum
C
Is supplied by nasocilliary nerve
D
Is divided into 2 parts by Muller's muscle
Question 7
For a facial scar that is running at right angles to the RSTL on face, the following technique is useful:
A
W-plasty
B
V plasty
C
M-plasty
D
Z-Plasty
Question 8
Z plasty is general used for:
A
Shortening the scar
B
Creating less tension on the suture line
C
Decreasing the use of suture material required for closure of wound
D
Effacement of scars in regions like 1st web space.
Question 9
Geometric Broken Line Wound Closure(GBLWC)
A
Is a technique that lengthens the scar
B
Makes the hypertrophic scar flat
C
Takes into account the peculiar anatomy of the concerned region
D
Makes the scar look less visible by optical illusion
Question 10
A 90 degree Z plasty
A
Lengthens the scar by 50%
B
The movements of the flaps is easier as compared to a 60 degree design
C
Is useful in web space contractures for deepening of the web
D
Is more useful on face
Question 11
Which of the following is adviseable after a raised scar on face after 3 months of trauma:
A
Immediate scar revision
B
Kenacort Injections
C
Pressure , massage and waiting for about one year
D
Multiple z Plasty
Question 12
The Z Plasty :
A
Is a rotaion flap
B
A transposition flap
C
An advancement flap
D
An interpolation flap
Question 13
Tensor veli palatini ?
A
Originates from first brancial arch
B
Is supplied by vagus nerve
C
Arises from fourth branchial arch
D
Is supplied by superior laryngeal nerve
Question 14
Soft tissue injuries involving facial nerve branches
A
One can not accurately test function of facial nerve soon after trauma
B
The buccal branches medial to lateral canthus can be left untreated if transected
C
The exploration should be undertaken after 48 hours only
D
Nerve regeneration in facial nerve after the repair occurs at the rate of 2mm/day
Question 15
The zygomatic arch
A
Is more curved than straight
B
Can lead to trismus in fracture zygoma
C
Should never be fixed if fractured
D
Can be removed if fractured in many parts without any deformity
Question 16
In karapendzic flap for lip reconstruction:
A
The lip competence is maintained
B
There is no microstomia
C
The lip pout is good
D
There is minimal perioral scarring
Question 17
Which of the following will NOT impede wound healing
A
Diabetes mellitus
B
Venous stasis
C
Wound moisture
D
Colchicine
Question 18
Rhinophyma is most commonly associated with:
A
Telangiatasis
B
Sebaceous hyperplasia
C
Acanthosis
D
Ulceration
Question 19
The palmar interossie
A
Are 4 in number
B
The muscles are bipennate
C
Are abductors of fingers
D
Get inserted on the proximal phalanx
Question 20
A keloid is characterized by the following except
A
May occur after Trivial trauma
B
Usually recurs after excision
C
Overgrows beyond original wound
D
Can regresses over an extended period
Question 21
The extent of the burn can be estimated by the "Rule of nine". It was described by
A
Pulaski and Tennison
B
Wallace
C
Lund and Browder
D
Gillies
Question 22
Soft triangle of the nose is composed of
A
Skin fold
B
Cartilage
C
Fibrous tissue
D
Nasalis muscle
Question 23
In the Glasgow coma scale, the following responses are assessed except    
A
Best verbal response
B
Eyes open response
C
Best motor response
D
Tongue protrusion response
Question 24
In a bilateral subcondylar fracture of mandible, the patient would have a
A
Normal occlusion
B
Lateral cross bite deformity
C
Anterior open bite deformity
D
Posterior open bite deformity
Question 25
A case of Treacher Collins syndrome will have a combination of which of the following Tessier clefts
A
No. 3,4,5
B
No. 4,5,6
C
No. 5,6,7
D
No. 6,7,8
Question 26
The hallmark sign of haemangioma is
A
Erythematous macular patch at birth
B
Female predilection
C
Rapid growth in early months of life
D
Rubbery consistency
Question 27
The specific ultraviolet radiation band responsible for skin carcinogenesis is
A
UVA
B
UVB
C
UVC
D
UVD
Question 28
In the Kessler's tendon suture procedure the knot lies
A
In the proximal part of the tendon
B
In the distal part of the tendon
C
In between the two cut ends of the tendon
D
Outside the two cut ends of the tendon
Question 29
The carpal tunnel allows passage of how many structures (tendons and nerves) through it
A
Eight
B
Ten
C
Twelve
D
Nine
Question 30
The carpal tunnel is located in
A
Zone 1
B
Zone 2
C
Zone 3
D
Zone 4
Question 31
Repair of cleft lip is indicated
A
to ensure development of normal speech
B
for cosmetic reasons
C
to ensure proper sucking by the infant
D
for development of proper dentition
Question 32
The Plastic Surgeon who has won Nobel Prize is
A
Harold Gilles
B
Dupuytren
C
Joseph Murray
D
Michael Debakey
Question 33
A deltopectoral flap is
A
Random pattern flap
B
Is more suitable for people with long neck and narrow
C
A flap of choice for microvascular tissue transfer
D
Is based upon perforators of internal mammary artery
Question 34
One of the following conditions is not associated with bleeding from the nose:
A
fracture zygoma
B
fracture nose
C
Fracture maxilla
D
fracture ascending ramus of mandible
Question 35
The most physiological solution for burn resuscitation is:
A
5% dextrose solution
B
Plasma
C
Ringer lactate
D
Normal saline
Question 36
Respiratory obstruction is likely to occur with
A
Bilateral parasymphseal fractures
B
Alveolar fracture of maxilla
C
Fracture nose
D
Fracture of the ascending ramus
Question 37
Which tissue was used by Sushrata for making nose?
A
Cheek
B
Forearm
C
Arm
D
Scalp
Question 38
Angiosome theory was given by
A
A Nyhus
B
Mathes
C
Taylor
D
Gilles
Question 39
All the following muscles are supplied by the facial nerve except the
A
Anterior digastic
B
Posterior digastic
C
Cornigator
D
Procerus
Question 40
In " bat ear" deformity      
A
The cephaloauricular angle is decreased
B
The concha is shallow
C
There is absence of antihelical fold
D
The ear is crumpled
Question 41
Abnormally elevated lower lip on ipsilateral in marginal mandibular nerve palsy is caused by loss of function of
A
Mentalis muscle
B
Depressor anguli oris
C
Zygomatic major muscle
D
Orbicularis oris muscle
Question 42
In radial nerve palsy in the arm there is
A
Loss of opponens movement of thumb
B
Clawing deformity of fingers
C
Weakness of brachioradialis muscle
D
Loss of wrist extension
Question 43
In ideal 'Z' plasty:
A
The three limbs of 'Z' should be equal
B
The angle between the limbs should be as small as possible
C
The gain in length is minimal
D
The surrounding skin should be scarred
Question 44
Fixed unit of hand consists of
A
2nd and 3rd metacarpal along with distal carpal row
B
3rd and 4th metacarpal along with distal carpal row
C
4th and 5th metacarpal along with distal carpal row
D
2nd and 3rd metacarpal
Question 45
In electrical burns of extremities
A
Skin involvement is more than muscle involvement
B
Superficial muscles are more extensively damaged than the deeper muscles
C
Renal shut down may occur very rapidly if inadequately ressuscitated
D
Fluid requirement is minimal
Question 46
The Urethera
A
Is inside the corpora cavernosa
B
Is inside the corpora spongiosum
C
Is surrounded by tunica albugenia on the outside.
D
Always reaches the tip of penis in hypospadias
Question 47
The pivot point for a deltopectoral flap is
A
Medial end of upper border
B
Medial end of lower border
C
Center of upper border
D
Center of lower border
Question 48
In a random skin flap
A
Blood supply is through dermal and subdermal plexus
B
Length to width ratio has no relation to flap survival
C
Are sturdier than axial skin flaps
D
Can be raised as an island flap
Question 49
The following features are present in midpenile hypospadias except one:
A
Ventral chordee
B
Normal prepuce
C
Proximally placed uretheral meatus
D
Blind sinuses in the uretheral plate
Question 50
Early signs of an impending "Pressure Sore" are:
A
Loss of sensation of skin
B
Persistent non -blanching erythema of skin
C
Low grade fever
D
Pallor of skin
Question 51
Which of following is an example of advancement flap
A
Limberg flap
B
Doufermental flap
C
V to Y closure
D
Bilobed flap
Question 52
Which of the following is a prime flexor of metacarpophalangeal joint ?
A
Flexor digitorum superficials
B
Flexor digitorum profundus
C
Flexor carpi radialis
D
Lumbricals
Question 53
The parotid duct is represented by the middle third of a line drawn between the :
A
The tragus and the tip of the nose
B
The tragus and the angle of the mouth
C
The tragus and the midportion of upper lip
D
The tragus and the midportion of lower lip
Question 54
In hypertelorism which of the following structure is mainly responsible for the deformity :
A
Crista galli
B
Cribriform plate
C
Ethmoidal air cells
D
Sphenoidal air cells
Question 55
In trap door scar
A
There is pin cushioning effect
B
The scar line is always zigzag
C
There is obstruction to blood flow
D
There is no need for surgical intervention as this is likely to settle on its own
Question 56
Marjolin's ulcer
A
Usually a basal cell carcinoma
B
Occurs in chronic ulcers
C
Has a very poor prognosis even early stages
D
Spreads to regional lymph nodes even in early stages
Question 57
Dish face deformity    
A
Results as a result of improperly treated fracture maxilla
B
Results because of malunited naso-orbito-ethmoid fracture
C
Results because of mandibular retrusion
D
May happen in temporomandibular joint ankylosis
Question 58
Meshing of the skin graft:
A
Helps in increasing the surface area of the graft
B
Results in better quality cover
C
Is recommended only for small areas
D
Results in better cosmetic result
Question 59
Which of the following is an absorbabale suture
A
Silk
B
Polyamide
C
Polyglactin
D
Stainless steel
Question 60
In hemangioma
A
The endothelium is normal
B
There are no mitosis seen
C
The lesion is present at birth
D
The lesion shows waxing and waning of growth
Question 61
In a linear contracture of the finger
A
A large single z -plasty will give the best results
B
Multiple small z-plasties will be ideal
C
W -plasty will be best
D
V-Y advancement is likely to be the best
Question 62
Proud flesh is the term used to describe
A
Granulation tissue
B
Muscle protruding through skin wound
C
Hypertrophy of tongue
D
Lipoma
Question 63
After repair of the cleft palate in early child hood
A
The maxillary arch collapses
B
The maxillary arch remain unafected
C
The madibular arch collapses
D
The mandibular arch expands
Question 64
In Claw hand deformity
A
The M.P. joints are flexed and the I.P. joints are extended
B
The M.P. joints are hyper-extended and I.P .joints are flexed
C
Both M.P. joints and I.P. joints are acutely flexed
D
Both M.P. joints and I.P. joints are hyper -extended
Question 65
A 6 month old child sustains deep flame burns involving entire posterior trunk and buttocks and anterior and posterior head and neck. The burn size is estimated to be:
A
20%
B
15%
C
30%
D
37%
Question 66
The last muscle to be supplied by ulnar N is:  
A
Adductor digit minimi
B
1st dorsal interosseous muscle
C
Adductor pollicis
D
Flexor pollicis
Question 67
Meleney's infection is caused by
A
Clostridia
B
Microaerophilic streptococci
C
Staphylococci
D
Beta hemolytic streptococci
Question 68
Single most important factor for development of decubitus ulcer is
A
Unrelieved pressure
B
Associated neurologic injury
C
Poor nutritional status
D
Repeated trauma
Question 69
Angle's classification classifies
A
Nasal fractures
B
Zygomatic fractures
C
Mandibular fractures
D
Dental occlusion
Question 70
Cribrifrom plate is a part of
A
Frontal bone
B
Nasal bone
C
Sphenoid
D
Ethmoid
Question 71
All are features of burn hand claw deformity except
A
MP joint extension
B
PIP joint flexion
C
DIP joint flexion
D
Thumb abduction
Question 72
In burns, transient leucopenia may occur secondary to application of
A
Mafenide
B
Silver Nitrate
C
Silver sulphadiazine
D
Eusol
Question 73
Main blood supply of palatal mucoperiosteum is
A
Nasopalatine artery
B
Greater palatine artery
C
Ascending palatine artery
D
Lesser palatine artery
Question 74
In classic facelift, plane of dissection in temporal area is      
A
In subdermal plexus
B
Subcutaneous
C
Deep to superficial temporal fascia
D
Deep to galea
Question 75
The Characterstic features of Submucous cleft are:
A
Mental retardation
B
Speech is always normal
C
The patient has regurgitation of food into the nose
D
Notching of the posterior border of hard palate
Question 76
In cleft palate
A
The palatal muscle are abnormally inserted but have normal origin
B
The palatal movements are normal
C
The muscles are normally inserted but have abnormal origin
D
Some muscle are normally inserted and some are abnormally inserted
Question 77
In hemi- facial atrophy
A
The symptoms appear soon after the birth
B
There is autosomal dominant inheritance
C
The surgical treatment should wait till the disease becomes quiet
D
There is atrophy of only the skeletal elements; rest of the structures in the affected area are normal
Question 78
Which of the following findings are most consistent with Apert Syndrome?
A
Normal midface growth
B
Unicoronal synostosis
C
Hypotelorism
D
Complex syndactyly
Question 79
The adequacy of debridement is best assessed by:
A
color of the soft tissue
B
brisk subdermal bleeding
C
bright red color of the underlying muscle
D
turger of the tissue
Question 80
The Which of the following palatal muscles is most important in development of normal speech:
A
Palatoglossus
B
Palatopharyngeus
C
Tensor tympani
D
Levator palate
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results
There are 80 questions to complete.
List
Return
Shaded items are complete.
12345
678910
1112131415
1617181920
2122232425
2627282930
3132333435
3637383940
4142434445
4647484950
5152535455
5657585960
6162636465
6667686970
7172737475
7677787980
End
Return

Online Mock Test / Quiz

Latest Topics:



Get E-Mail Updates

Get Updates/Alert From us


Please Enter Your

E-mail Address:



Sarkari Naukri 2019

© 2009 – 2021 JbigDeaL ® - Latest Updates ©