Urology Quiz Question Answers (Question Bank)

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We have put total 100 Objective Type Question Answers on Urology, you can practice these question answers for free. Well these MCQs test question comes from different areas on Urology.

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Urology Quiz Question Answers (Total 20 MCQs)

Urology Quiz (Medical) 20 Question Answers

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Question 1
Which of the following is not a sperm retrieval technique
A
PESA
B
Micro TESE
C
ICSI
D
MESA
Question 2
True statement about posterior urethral valve (PUV) is all except
A
There are three types of PUV.
B
Bladder dysfunction usually resolves after valve ablation.
C
Pulmonary hypoplasia is the most common cause of death in PUV patients.
D
All patients have some degree of obstructive uropathy.
Question 3
A 60 year old male presents with urinary retention and evaluation revealed bilateral hydro-uretero-nephrosis. He was catheterized. What should you do subsequently?
A
The bladder should have been decompressed slowly over 2 hours to prevent post- obstructive diuresis.
B
His electrolytes and fluid status should be monitored closely
C
He needs intravenous fluid supplementation
D
The fluid correction should be with solute free fluids since he has solute overload
Question 4
The following are measures of scatter in statistical analysis except  
A
Mean
B
Standard error of the mean
C
Standard deviation
D
Range
Question 5
True statements about A placebo effect are all except
A
may occur in either treatment or control groups
B
is likely to occur repeatedly in placebo reactors
C
can occur in up to 35% of patients
D
is not seen in double-blind trials
Question 6
A 32 year male presents with incidentally detected left hydronephrosis on ultrasound. On further evaluation by CECT he is diagnosed to have ureteropelvic junction obstruction. What should be the next step?
A
He should be taken up for pyeloplasty.
B
He should be evaluated by nuclear renography for further decision
C
Laparoscopic pyeloplasty will give better outcome for him
D
He can be observed and followed up for symptoms of flank pain.
Question 7
True about male reproductive axis is all except
A
The gonadotrophin secretion is in pulsatile manner from hypothalamus
B
LH stimulates interstitial cells to secrete di-hydrotestosterone from testis
C
FSH stimulates sertoli cells to maintain spermatogenesis.
D
There is a diurnal variation of testosterone levels.
Question 8
A 40 year old male was undergoing laparoscopic pyeloplasty. On veress needle insertion and CO2 insufflation, the surgeon notices that the initial pressure is 14mm and the flow rate is 0.5 lit/min. What should be thought next?
A
This indicates a pre-peritoneal placement of the needle and repeat attempt should be done
B
It indicates problem of the insufflator and the machine settings should be checked
C
This indicates a bowel injury and the procedure to be converted to open surgery
D
This is due to CO2 air embolism and the anesthesiologist should be alarmed immediately
Question 9
True about prostate specific antigen is all except
A
It is a marker of kallikrein family
B
Its function is to liquefy semen
C
The serum half life of PSA is 2-3 days
D
Prostate cancer cells make more PSA than normal prostate tissue.
Question 10
True about penile anatomy is
A
Root of the penis is fixed to the perineum within deep pouch
B
Elastic fibers from the rectus sheath blend with Buck's fascia as the fundiform ligament.
C
The skin of the penile glands has many appendages
D
Buck's fascia fuses with tunica albugenia of the penis in penile shaft.
Question 11
Clinical conditions that decrease specific gravity of urine include all except
A
increased fluid intake
B
diabetes mellitus
C
diabetes insipidus
D
decreased renal concentrating ability
Question 12
All are radiation protection measures except
A
Using short bursts of fluoroscopy
B
Positioning the image intensifier as far as away from the patient
C
Preferably using the last image hold feature on fluoroscopy unit
D
Thyroid and body shielding by lead aprons
Question 13
True about suture materials used in surgery
A
Vicryl is absorbable braided suture
B
Monocryl is a synthetic absorbable braided suture
C
PDS is a synthetic non-absorbable monofilament suture
D
Chromic catgut is a natural absorbable braided suture
Question 14
All are advantages of robotic surgery over laparoscopic procedures except:
A
Seven degrees of movement in robotic surgery
B
robotic surgery has better tactile sensation
C
Has 3-D vision
D
better surgeon comfort
Question 15
A 60 year old female presents with fever, left flank pain and a tender flank mass on palpation., her CECT abdomen shows a poorly functioning and uniformly enlarged left kidney with renal pelvic stone. She is likely to suffering from  
A
Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
B
Emphysematous pyelonephritis
C
Malakoplakia
D
Renal Echinnosis
Question 16
A forty year gentleman complaints of thinning of stream after trauma to perineum. His retrograde urethrogram reveals a bulbar urethral stricture of length of 1 cm, with minimal spongio-fibrosis on local examination. Which of the following is a suitable treatment for this patient?
A
Urethral dilatation
B
Optical internal urethrotomy
C
End to end anastomotic urethroplasty
D
Removable urethral stents.
Question 17
All are steps of progressive perinealurethroplasty except
A
Mobilization of the bulbar urethra
B
Division of triangular ligament and crural separation
C
Inferior pubectomy
D
Perinealurethrostomy.
Question 18
An 18 year boy sustains a straddle injury and develops ecchymosis limited to penis and scrotum. The fascia that contains the extravasation is
A
Buck's
B
Dartos
C
Colles'
D
External spermatic
Question 19
True about estimation of glomerular function rate (GFR) is all except
A
Plasma cystatin c is a better marker than plasma creatinine for estimation of GFR.
B
Plasma creatinine changes linearly with the change in GFR
C
In liver cirrhosis there may be overestimation of GFR
D
In state of muscle breakdown there may be underestimation of GFR based on plasma creatinine.
Question 20
True about urethral catheters is
A
Catheter sizes are usually referred in millimeter scale.
B
Catheter size refers to the outer diameter and not the luminal diameter
C
Straight rubber or latex catheters are best suited for long term catheterization
D
Coude catheters are specifically designed for female urethral catheterization
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Urology Quiz Question Answers (Total 80 MCQs)

Urology Quiz (Medical) 80 Question Answers

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Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
R.E.N.A.L Nephrometry score contains all except
A
Tumor Size
B
Exophytic
C
Nearness to hilum
D
Laterality
Question 2
Who proposed the classification system for emphysematous pyelonephritis
A
Nakada et al
B
Semm et al
C
Wan and Huang et al
D
Penn et al
Question 3
While evaluating a case of acute abdominal pain which of these is expected to provide maximum information:
A
Examination of abdomen
B
Supine and erect X-ray film of abdomen
C
Ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis
D
Non-contrast enhanced computed tomogram (NCCT) of abdomen
Question 4
Brachytherapy for carcinoma prostate is contraindicated in all of the following situations except
A
Inflammatory bowel disease
B
Severe obstructive urinary symptoms
C
Past history of UTI
D
Prior history of TURP
Question 5
A 25 years lady has been having recurrent left flank pain for 6 months. The X-ray KUB, which she carried, did not show any radio-opaque density in KUB region. Which of the following are possible diagnosis:
A
Genito-urinary tuberculosis
B
Left pelvi-ureteral junction obstruction
C
Left staghorn calculus
D
Idiopathic retroperironeal fibrosis
Question 6
Which of the following statement regarding malakoplakia is incorrect
A
Michaelis Gutmann bodies are basophilic inclusions in histiocytes
B
Described originally by von Hansemann in 1902
C
Michaelis Gutmann bodies may be absent in early malacoplakia
D
Unifocal malacoplakia can be confused with malignancy
Question 7
Which of the following is an uncommon complication of prostatectomy for benign hypertrophy of prostate:
A
Perioperative haemorrhage requiring transfusion
B
Bacteraemia
C
Rectal perforation
D
Retrograde ejaculatio
Question 8
True statement about Lithotripter is
A
Holmium-Yag laser acts by electric waves producing shock waves
B
Lithoclast master is a combination of electrohydrolic and pneumatic lithotripter
C
Pneumatic lithotripter works on Jackhammer principle
D
Electrohydrolic is the most efficient lithotripter available
Question 9
A 23 years lady during 27th week of pregnancy had an episode of febrile urinary tract infection with Esch.coli. Following treatment she is symptom free but culture of her urine is showing growth of E.coli. The appropriate management should be:
A
Suitable antimicrobial prophylaxis till completion of delivery
B
A 10 days course of suitable antibiotic to eradicate the bacteria
C
Intravenous urography to look for underlying pathology in the urinary tract
D
Watchful waiting
Question 10
The Surgical Apgar Score is a recently introduced metric for identifying patients with a higher risk of postoperative complication or death. It contains variables all except   
A
Estimated blood loss
B
Lowest heart rate
C
Lowest mean arterial pressure
D
Operative time
Question 11
The first successful living donor kidney transplantation was performed in which year:
A
1963
B
1960
C
1954
D
1951
Question 12
In relation to HLA matching which HLA class has the most powerful effect on graft survival
A
HLA-A
B
HLA-B
C
HLA-DR
D
HLA-C
Question 13
Which of the following is not a significant risk factor for pressure sores:
A
Obesity
B
Lack of mobility
C
Dehydration
D
Poor nutritional status
Question 14
The anti-microbial agent of choice for treatment of Chlamydia infection (as in nongonococcal urethritis/prostatitis) is:
A
Ciprofloxacin
B
Co-trimoxazole
C
Tetracycline
D
Doxycycline
Question 15
Microscopic appearance of struvite stones
A
Rectangular coffin lid
B
Envelope
C
Needle shaped
D
Hexagonal
Question 16
Thermoablative treatment for renal tumors can be used in all of the following except
A
Hereditary RCC with multifocal tumors
B
4.5cms renal tumor
C
Patients with advanced age and with significant comorbidities
D
Local recurrence after previous NSS
Question 17
Patient having a right renal hyperdense lesion >3cm and totally intrarenal will be classified according to bosniak classification
A
Type 1
B
Type 2
C
Type 2F
D
Type 3
Question 18
Which of the following regarding hernia uteri inguinale is wrong
A
60-70% have bilateral intra abdominal testes
B
Karyotype is 46XY
C
Severe form of hypospadias is seen
D
Inguinal hernia with rudimentary uterus and fallopian tube in the hernia sac seen
Question 19
True about pelvicaleceal system is
A
Renal papilla opens directly into major calyx
B
Compound calyx is formed by fusion of two minor calyx
C
Compound calyx is usually located at poles
D
Minor calyx always opens into the infundibulum
Question 20
In renal tuberculosis the usual site of initial granuloma formation is:
A
Renal cortex
B
Cortico-medulary junction
C
Renal pyramid
D
Minor calyx
Question 21
The following drug should be used with caution in first trimester of pregnancy
A
Amoxicillin
B
Nitrofurantoin
C
Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
D
Cephalexin
Question 22
A 55 years-old man had undergone open radical nephrectomy for a 15 cm size renal cell carcinoma invading the perinephric fat. At 12 weeks follow up patient continues to have low grade fever. He should be investigated for:
A
Urinary tract infection
B
Deep seated would infection
C
Tuberculosis.
D
Distant metastasis
Question 23
Development of male external genitalia is dependent on the action of
A
Testosterone
B
Dihydrotestosterone
C
FSH
D
LH
Question 24
Rocco stitch popularized for which Robot assisted surgery
A
Partial nephrectomy
B
Radical prostatectomy
C
Pyeloplasty
D
VVF Repair
Question 25
Freedom of movement at the tip of robotic instruments in robot assisted surgery with endowrist technology is
A
5 degrees
B
6 degrees
C
7 degress
D
9 degrees
Question 26
Prostate health index includes all except
A
total PSA
B
free PSA
C
PCA 3
D
[-2]pro PSA
Question 27
Which of the following is abnormal in the process of wound healing:
A
Inflammation
B
Angiogenesis
C
Epithelialisation
D
Calcification
Question 28
Snowflake hypothesis is given for
A
Chronic Pelvic Pain Syndrome
B
Interstitial cystitis
C
OAB
D
Stress urinary incontinence
Question 29
Which of the following drug is studied in COU - AA-302 trial
A
Docetaxel
B
Enzalutamide
C
Abiraterone
D
Cabazitaxel
Question 30
Which of the following stones are most resistant to ESWL
A
Struvite stones
B
Calcium oxalate dihydrate stones
C
Brushite stones
D
Uric acid stones
Question 31
Which of the following clinical situation need urgent placement of nephrostomy for urinary diversion:
A
Calculus anuria with uraemia
B
Recurrent ureteric colic in a pregnant lady.
C
Febrile episodes in patient with hydronephrosis.
D
Palpable kidney with pelvi-ureteric junction obstruction
Question 32
Following statement regarding autonomic dysreflexia is correct
A
It is seen in spinal cord lesions below T6 level
B
It leads to increased parasympathetic activity
C
It can occur after any endoscopic procedure
D
Verapamil is given as a treatment option when anticipated
Question 33
Systemic inflammatory response syndrome includes the following clinical criterion except: Fever of more than 38 o C (100.4 o F) or less than 36 Heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute o C (96.8 o F) Respiratory rate of more than 20 breaths per minute or arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO 2) of less than 32 mm Hg Abnormal white blood cell count (>12,000/ L or < 4,000/ L or >10% immature [band] forms)
A
Fever of more than 38oC (100.4oF) or less than 36oC (96.8oF)
B
Heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute
C
Respiratory rate of more than 20 breaths per minute or arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO 2) of less than 32 mm Hg
D
Abnormal white blood cell count (>12,000/ L or < 4,000/ Lor>10% immature [band] forms)
Question 34
Retrorenal colon can be suspected in all of the following except
A
Horse-shoe kidney
B
History of jejunoileal surgery
C
Ectopic kidney
D
Obese patients
Question 35
Following road traffic accident a 30 years man has sustained fracture of superior rami of both pubic bones. His B P is stable but he is in distress due to inability to pass urine 12 hours after injury. What may be the underlying cause?
A
Patient is in anuria due to persistent hypotension
B
There is extra peritoneal rupture of bladder
C
Acute urinary retention due to pain
D
Distraction injury to prostate-membranous urethra
Question 36
which of the following variant of fibromuscular dysplasia has minimal risk of loss of renal function if managed non operatively  
A
Intimal fibroplasia
B
Medial fibroplasia
C
Perimedial fibroplasia
D
Fibromuscular hyperplasia
Question 37
Prune belly syndrome includes all of the following except
A
Anomalous urinary tract
B
Cardiac anomalies
C
Bilateral intra abdominal testes
D
Deficiency of abdominal musculature
Question 38
Which of the following statement is incorrect
A
Vesiculo deferential artery is a branch of inferior vesical artery
B
Neurovascular bundle of walsh is located at 5 and 7-o clock position at the apex of prostate
C
Narrowest part of anterior urethra is external meatus
D
Trigone of bladder is mesodermal in origin
Question 39
Estimation of serum PSA (prostate specific antigen) to screen for cancer of prostate is best indicated in which of the following clinical situations:
A
55 years-old gentleman with a palpable nodule on prostate on digital rectal examination
B
68 years-old gentleman with advanced diabetic nephropathy and recurrent UTI (urinary tract infection)
C
60 years-old gentleman with history of cancer prostate in one of his paternal uncle
D
80 years-old gentleman with back pain and X-ray documenting multiple osteolytic lesions on skull bones
Question 40
Non-contrast enhanced spiral computed tomogram of a 23 years lady following an episode of colicky lower abdominal pain has detected a 3mm calculus in left lower ureter without any dilatation of proximal ureter. An reasonable advice would be:
A
Ureterolithotomy
B
Ureteroscopy and stone fragmentation
C
Shock wave lithotripsy
D
Expectant management
Question 41
Which of the following agent is not useful in the management of TCC (Transitional Cell Carcinoma) of urinary bladder:
A
Bacilli Calmette-Guerin
B
Mitomycin
C
Cyclophosphamide
D
Gemcitabin
Question 42
True about sterilization of endoscopes are all except
A
Microlens should be steam sterilized
B
Rigid endoscopes can be steam sterilized
C
Light chords should always be gas sterilized
D
Cameras can be sterilized by cold soak method
Question 43
In the retroperitoneum the gonadal vein is
A
Anterior to ureter
B
Posterior to ureter
C
Lateral to ureter
D
Not immediately related to ureter
Question 44
Cyclical haematuria in females may be encountered in:
A
Ureterovaginal fistula
B
Vesical calculus disease
C
Uterine prolapse
D
Vesical endometriosis
Question 45
The first branch of abdominal aorta is
A
The coeliac trunk
B
Middle adrenal artery
C
Right renal artery
D
Inferior phrenic artery
Question 46
Which of the following is a most selective M3 receptor blocker
A
Trospium
B
Toltoredine
C
Darifenacin
D
Solofenacin
Question 47
Which of the following is not a domain of IIEF questionnaire for erectile dysfunction
A
Orgasmic function
B
Sexual desire
C
Erectile function
D
Partner satisfaction
Question 48
Which of the following statement regarding upper tract TCC is incorrect
A
Incidence of upper tract TCC in patients with carcinoma bladder is 2-4%
B
Bilateral involvement is seen in 10% of cases
C
Risk of development of baldder cancer is 15-75%
D
Distal ureter is the most common site of upper tract TCC
Question 49
Which of the following is not branch of the posterior trunk of internal iliac artery
A
superiorvesical artery
B
superior gluteal artery
C
lateral sacral artery
D
ascending lumbar artery
Question 50
Gay gene is located at
A
X chromosome
B
6 chromosome
C
22 chromosome
D
Y chromosome
Question 51
Which of the following statement regarding modified inguinal lymphadenectomy in carcinoma penis is wrong
A
Area of dissection lateral to femoral vein is avoided
B
First described by Catalona in 1988
C
Superficial and deep inguinal nodes will be removed
D
There is no need to transpose Sartorius muscle
Question 52
Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?
A
Mean
B
Mode
C
Range
D
Median
Question 53
In which of the following situation circumcision should be avoided
A
Recurrent UTI
B
Coronal hypospadias
C
Phimosis
D
Recurrent balanoposthitis
Question 54
Among the alfa blockers which has the highest risk of retrograde ejaculation
A
Alfuzosin
B
Tamsulosin
C
Silodosin
D
Doxazosin
Question 55
Which of the following statement is incorrect
A
Lumbodorsal fascia arises from spinous processes of lumbar vertebra
B
Psoas muscle arises from 11th,12th, thoracic through 5th,lumbar vertebra
C
Lumbar veins connect the IVC to the azygous venous system on right side
D
Right adrenal gland is pyramidal in shape and more superiorly located
Question 56
For a few sessions of haemodialysis (e.g. while managing Acute Renal Failure), a double lumen vascular access catheter may be
A
Antecubital vein
B
Internal jugular vein
C
Peritoneal cavity
D
External jugular vein
Question 57
Which of the following cancer is considered most lethal:
A
Renal cell carcinoma
B
Adenocarcinoma of prostate
C
Transitional carcinoma of urinary bladder
D
Squamous cell carcinoma of penis
Question 58
International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) includes all except
A
Intermittency
B
Dysuria
C
Urgecncy
D
Incomplete emptying
Question 59
Which suture material is suitable during dismembered Pyeloplasty for congenital pelvi-ureteric junction obstruction in a 20 years-old college student?
A
1-0 Catgut
B
3-0 Prolene
C
3-0 Monocril
D
3-0 Nylon
Question 60
Most common presentation of medullary sponge kidney
A
Urinary tract infection
B
Gross hematuria
C
Renal colic
D
Lump in the abdomen
Question 61
Which of the following semen parameter is not correct according to WHO 2010
A
Volume-1.5 ml
B
Total sperm count-39 x 106
C
Vitality(%)- 35%
D
Total motility-30 %
Question 62
The transplantation of human organs (amendement ) bill , 2009 includes all except
A
Organ swapping allowed
B
Regulates transplantation of human organs not the transplantation of human tissues
C
Bill enhanced the penalty for unauthorized removal of human organs
D
Includes grandparents and grandchildren as near relatives
Question 63
Digital rectal examination on a 60-years man during routine health check up revealed a definite hard nodule involving nearly half of the right lobe of prostate, normal left lobe and overlying rectal mucosa is free. What is the clinical T stage of this tumour?
A
T2a
B
T2b
C
T2c
D
T1b
Question 64
Which of the following bone targeted therapy have shown to improve overall survival in metastatic prostate cancer .
A
Radium 223
B
Samarium-153
C
Strontium-89
D
Denosumab
Question 65
Which of the following variant of renal cell carcinoma has favourable prognosis
A
Clear cell carcinoma
B
Collecting duct carcinoma
C
Renal medullary carcinoma
D
Mucinous tubular and spindle cell carcinoma
Question 66
Mirabegron used for treatment of over active bladder is a
A
3 agonist
B
3 agonist
C
M3 agonist
D
GnRH agonist
Question 67
According to American association for the surgery of trauma organ injury severity scale for the kidney , parenchymal laceration extending through renal cortex , medulla and collecting system is classified as
A
Grade 2
B
Grade 3
C
Grade 4
D
Grade 5
Question 68
True about Hopkins rod lens system is
A
It has less air spaces and long glass of rods
B
The image field is smaller than the conventional system
C
The degree of magnification is dependent on length of the lens
D
Half mooning effect is generally a problem of fibro-optics and not rigid lenses.
Question 69
Prentiss manouvre
A
Fixing a ptotic kidney to the psoas muscle after partial nephrectomy
B
A technique in the management of vesicoureteric reflux
C
A technique in the management of undescended testes
D
Correcting testicular torsion conservatively
Question 70
Which of the following is a continuous wave laser
A
Ho:YAG Laser
B
KTP laser
C
Thulium Laser
D
Lithium triborate (LBO)
Question 71
Maastricht Classification in relation to organ donation applies to
A
Non heart beating donors
B
Brain dead donors
C
Live donors
D
Expanded criteria donors
Question 72
Which of the following was not defined as clinical progression in the MTOPS study?
A
Recurrent haematuria
B
Renal failure
C
Increase of 4 points in the AUA symptom score
D
Recurrent urinary tract infection
Question 73
Which of the following is incorrect
A
KTP LASER: 532 nm
B
Ho:YAG Laser: 2140nm
C
Nd:YAG laser: 1064 nm
D
Thulium:YAG laser: 536 nm
Question 74
Monoclonal antibody to RANKL is
A
Tocilizumab
B
Denosumab
C
Infliximab
D
Belimumab
Question 75
Which of the following indicate testicular failures as the cause for male factor infertility:
A
Azoospermia on semen analysis
B
Subnormal volume of both testes
C
Normal level of serum testosterone
D
Elevated serum level of follicle stimulating hormone
Question 76
T 1 G3 in bladder cancer refers to
A
High grade muscle invasive lesion
B
Low grade muscle invasive disease
C
High grade superficial bladder cancer
D
Low grade superficial disease
Question 77
Which of the following would be helpful to rule out a diagnosis of intra-peritoneal rupture of urinary bladder following blunt trauma:
A
Presence of fracture of superior ramus of pubis
B
Clinically palpable distended urinary bladder
C
Negative four quadrant abdominal tap
D
Inadequately filled urinary bladder on ultrasonography
Question 78
A circle divided into sectors proportional to the frequency of items shown is called
A
Bar chart
B
Pie chart
C
Histogram
D
Frequency polygon
Question 79
Which of the following is an autophagy inhibitor
A
Ketoconazole
B
Chloroquine
C
Abiraterone
D
Docetaxel
Question 80
Tract size used in Micro perc in the endoscopic management of renal stones
A
8Fr
B
12Fr
C
4.85Fr
D
6.25 Fr
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